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Which of the following conditions may lead to death in a bulimic patient like sherry?
- A. Hypokalemia and cardiac arrhythmias and arrest
- B. Metabolic acidosis and renal failure
- C. Hyponatremia and circulatory collapse
- D. Hypernatremia and congestive heart failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise. The repeated purging in bulimia can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Hypokalemia is a serious condition that can affect the function of the heart's electrical system, potentially leading to the development of cardiac arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats) and even cardiac arrest, which can result in death. Therefore, in a bulimic patient like Sherry, the risk of death is most likely due to the combination of hypokalemia and its complications, such as cardiac arrhythmias and arrest.
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Since she wanted to capture the essence and emotion of the victims she chose to use the qualitative design. Which among the statements below is CORRECT about qualitative design?
- A. It commences study at present but consummates at any future time
- B. It allows estimation of relationship between studied variables
- C. It provides insights into attitudes, beliefs, motivates and behaviours of target population
- D. It tests results through numerical data and subjects them to statistical analysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Qualitative research design focuses on gaining an in-depth understanding of attitudes, beliefs, motivations, and behaviors of individuals or groups. It does not typically involve statistical analysis or estimation of relationships between variables like quantitative designs do. Qualitative research involves collecting data through methods such as interviews, observations, or focus groups to provide rich and detailed insights into the experiences and perspectives of the participants. The emphasis is on understanding the meanings individuals attach to their experiences, rather than generalizing findings to a larger population.
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
- A. Giardia lamblia
- B. Entamoeba histolytica
- C. Cryptosporidium parvum
- D. Cyclospora cayetanensis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip suggest an infection caused by Cryptosporidium parvum. Cryptosporidium is a protozoan parasite that is commonly transmitted through contaminated water sources. Laboratory tests detecting oocysts in the stool sample are characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection.
To remove the ingested poisonous substance, the physician ordered a gastric lavage. What is the role of the nurse immediately prior to the procedure?
- A. Get the right size of the nasogastric tube
- B. Remind parents to be careful next time
- C. Obtain an informed consent immediately
- D. Tell the parent that they are negligent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prior to a gastric lavage procedure, it is essential for the nurse to ensure the correct size of the nasogastric tube is selected. The appropriate size of the tube will allow for effective removal of the ingested poisonous substance during the procedure. Proper sizing also helps in preventing complications such as injury to the gastrointestinal tract or inadequate removal of the substance. This step is crucial for the safe and successful completion of gastric lavage. Reminding parents to be careful, obtaining informed consent immediately, or accusing them of negligence are not immediate responsibilities of the nurse in this context.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Laboratory tests reveal elevated levels of antiphospholipid antibodies (anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Protein C deficiency
- B. Protein S deficiency
- C. Antithrombin III deficiency
- D. Antiphospholipid syndrome
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by abnormal antiphospholipid antibodies, which can lead to an increased risk of blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). The two most common antiphospholipid antibodies are anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant. Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome can present with recurrent thrombotic events, such as DVT and PE, due to the pro-thrombotic effects of these antibodies. Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency are other causes of hypercoagulability but would not typically present with elevated antiphospholipid antibodies.
A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are a class of medications commonly used to manage hypertension. One of the main mechanisms of action of beta-blockers is to reduce heart rate and contractility by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. As a result, one of the potential adverse effects of beta-blockers is bradycardia, which refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of bradycardia when starting or adjusting the dose of a beta-blocker. Symptoms of bradycardia may include dizziness, fainting, fatigue, or shortness of breath. If bradycardia is severe or symptomatic, it may require dose adjustments or discontinuation of the beta-blocker to prevent complications.