Nokea
Which of the following factors increase the risk of prostate cancer?
- A. A low-fat diet
- B. Alcohol and caffeine consumption
- C. Living an inactive lifestyle
- D. Smoking habits
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An inactive lifestyle is associated with an increased risk of prostate cancer.
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In male embryos, which hormone is responsible for the development of the urethra, prostate, and external genitals?
- A. dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
- B. FSH
- C. Progesterone
- D. Estrogen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is a potent form of testosterone responsible for male sexual development, including the formation of the urethra, prostate, and external genitals. It binds to androgen receptors in target tissues, promoting their growth and differentiation. FSH (Choice B) is follicle-stimulating hormone, which primarily regulates sperm production in males. Progesterone (Choice C) is a female sex hormone involved in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy. Estrogen (Choice D) is a female sex hormone responsible for female reproductive development. Thus, A is the correct answer as it specifically pertains to male sexual differentiation.
Acrosome is filled with _________.
- A. Lipids
- B. Hormones
- C. Digestive enzymes
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Digestive enzymes. The acrosome is a specialized organelle found in the head of sperm cells and is filled with enzymes that are crucial for fertilization. These enzymes help the sperm penetrate the outer layers of the egg during fertilization. Choice A (Lipids) is incorrect because the acrosome primarily contains enzymes, not lipids. Choice B (Hormones) is incorrect as hormones are not stored in the acrosome. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as the acrosome does indeed contain digestive enzymes essential for the sperm's fertilization process.
Men who take large doses of testosterone-like androgenic steroids for long periods are sterile in the reproductive sense of the word. What is the explanation for this finding?
- A. High levels of androgens bind to testosterone receptors in the Sertoli cells, resulting in overstimulation of inhibin formation
- B. Overstimulation of sperm cell production results in the formation of defective sperm cells
- C. High levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus, resulting in the inhibition of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone release by the anterior pituitary
- D. High levels of androgen compounds produce hypertrophic dysfunction of the prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because high levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the anterior pituitary gland. LH and FSH are crucial for proper testicular function, including sperm production. When the secretion of GnRH is inhibited by high levels of androgens, it leads to a decrease in LH and FSH levels, ultimately disrupting the normal feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This disruption results in impaired sperm production and fertility.
Choice A is incorrect because overstimulation of inhibin formation does not directly lead to sterility. Choice B is incorrect because overstimulation of sperm cell production would not result in the formation of defective sperm cells leading to sterility. Choice D is incorrect because hypert
With respect to the effects of testosterone in the male which statement is incorrect?
- A. testosterone inhibits the secretion of luteinising hormone
- B. testosterone stimulates the secretion of inhibin from leydig cells
- C. testosterone induces and maintains male sexual functions
- D. testosterone stimulates protein anabolism and bone growth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because inhibin is primarily secreted by Sertoli cells in the testes, not Leydig cells. Testosterone actually stimulates the secretion of inhibin from Sertoli cells. In contrast, Leydig cells produce testosterone in response to luteinising hormone (Choice A). Testosterone does play a key role in inducing and maintaining male sexual functions (Choice C) and also stimulates protein anabolism and bone growth (Choice D). Thus, Choice B is incorrect as Leydig cells do not secrete inhibin.
PID is:
- A. Prostate inflammatory disease
- B. Pelvic infiltrative disorder
- C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
- D. Prostate inhibitory disorder
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. PID stands for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease.
2. PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries.
3. Symptoms include pelvic pain, abnormal vaginal discharge, fever, and painful urination.
4. Choice A is incorrect because PID does not specifically refer to the prostate.
5. Choice B is incorrect as PID does not involve infiltration but rather inflammation.
6. Choice D is incorrect as PID is not a disorder that inhibits the prostate.