Nokea
What is the first structure to receive the oocyte?
- A. fimbriae
- B. uterine tube
- C. infundibulum
- D. uterus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fimbriae. Fimbriae are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tube that capture the released oocyte from the ovary during ovulation. The fimbriae create a gentle sweeping motion to guide the oocyte into the uterine tube for fertilization. The other choices are incorrect because the oocyte needs to be captured by the fimbriae before entering the uterine tube, infundibulum, or uterus. The fimbriae are the initial structure responsible for receiving the oocyte, making choice A the correct answer.
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A nurse identifies a client with an abnormal lab test that screens for prostate cancer. What is the test that the client will receive to screen for prostate cancer?
- A. PAS
- B. APS
- C. PSA
- D. PCA
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) is the standard screening test for prostate cancer.
The ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation is the
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Preovulatory phase
- C. Proliferative phase
- D. Follicular phase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During this phase, the endometrium thickens in preparation for a potential implantation of a fertilized egg. This phase occurs after the menstrual phase and before ovulation, marking the time when the ovarian follicles are developing under the influence of FSH. The other choices are incorrect because the menstrual phase (A) refers to the shedding of the endometrium, the preovulatory phase (B) occurs just before ovulation, and the follicular phase (D) includes both the menstrual and preovulatory phases.
During the 12-hr period preceding ovulation, which of the following is true?
- A. The plasma concentration of estrogen is rising
- B. A surge of luteinizing hormone is secreted from the pituitary
- C. The surge occurs immediately after the formation of the corpus luteum
- D. The surge followed immediately by a fall in the plasma concentration of progesterone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) is necessary for ovulation to occur, typically happening 24-36 hours before ovulation. This surge triggers the release of the mature egg from the ovarian follicle. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as estrogen levels peak just before ovulation, the corpus luteum forms after ovulation, and progesterone levels rise after ovulation, not fall immediately after the LH surge.
Which of the following is a form of sexual reproduction?
- A. Fragmentation.
- B. Parthenogenesis.
- C. Budding.
- D. Hermaphroditism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Define sexual reproduction as the process involving the fusion of gametes from two parents.
Step 2: Hermaphroditism refers to an organism having both male and female reproductive organs for self-fertilization.
Step 3: In hermaphroditism, there is still a fusion of gametes, fulfilling the criteria of sexual reproduction.
Step 4: Fragmentation, parthenogenesis, and budding are forms of asexual reproduction, not involving the fusion of gametes.
Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is D (Hermaphroditism) as it aligns with the definition and process of sexual reproduction.
Men who take large doses of testosterone-like androgenic steroids for long periods are sterile in the reproductive sense of the word. What is the explanation for this finding?
- A. High levels of androgens bind to testosterone receptors in the Sertoli cells, resulting in overstimulation of inhibin formation
- B. Overstimulation of sperm cell production results in the formation of defective sperm cells
- C. High levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus, resulting in the inhibition of luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone release by the anterior pituitary
- D. High levels of androgen compounds produce hypertrophic dysfunction of the prostate gland
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because high levels of androgen compounds inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH is responsible for stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) by the anterior pituitary gland. LH and FSH are crucial for proper testicular function, including sperm production. When the secretion of GnRH is inhibited by high levels of androgens, it leads to a decrease in LH and FSH levels, ultimately disrupting the normal feedback loop of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This disruption results in impaired sperm production and fertility.
Choice A is incorrect because overstimulation of inhibin formation does not directly lead to sterility. Choice B is incorrect because overstimulation of sperm cell production would not result in the formation of defective sperm cells leading to sterility. Choice D is incorrect because hypert