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After having a modified radical mastectomy, a client is transferred to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). All of these actions are included in the routine post-operative care for clients who have had this procedure. Which is best to delegate to an experienced LPN?
- A. Monitor client's dressing for any signs of bleeding.
- B. Document the initial assessment on client's chart.
- C. Call client's status report to the charge nurse on the surgical unit.
- D. Teach client about the importance of using pain medication as needed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing for signs of bleeding is within the scope of practice for an LPN.
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A nurse is teaching a client in the doctor's office about genital warts. Which of the following is the best discharge instruction to give to a client with genital warts?
- A. Advise all sexual contacts to be examined and treated.
- B. Antiviral IV drugs are recommended to prevent viral shedding.
- C. Topical applications of the antiviral drugs are recommended for clinical benefits.
- D. Use of alcohol, peroxide, witch hazel, and warm air from a hair dryer are recommended to keep the lesions dry.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Notifying and treating all sexual contacts is essential to prevent further spread of genital warts.
A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 680 ng/dL; prostate-specific antigen: 10 ng/mL; prolactin: 5 ng/mL. What action by the nurse is best?
- A. Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge.
- B. Note the possibility of a testicular tumor.
- C. Communicate to the provider that results were normal
- D. Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prepare the client for further diagnostic testing. A testosterone level of 680 ng/dL is high for a 67-year-old male, which could indicate an underlying medical condition. A prostate-specific antigen level of 10 ng/mL is elevated and could suggest prostate issues. Prolactin level of 5 ng/mL is within normal range but still needs further evaluation due to the other abnormal results. Therefore, preparing the client for further diagnostic testing is crucial to investigate the potential underlying health concerns.
Incorrect options:
A: Assess for possible galactorrhea with breast discharge - Irrelevant as galactorrhea is not indicated by the given results.
B: Note the possibility of a testicular tumor - Testosterone level elevation is more indicative of non-testicular issues.
C: Communicate to the provider that results were normal - Results are not normal, warranting further evaluation.
Mrs. Kwame is scheduled for a hysterectomy for stage III cancer of the cervix. What information will help her request appropriate p.r.n. pain medication?
- A. Understanding prescribed drug action
- B. Support and reassurance from the nurse
- C. The nurse's beliefs and preferences regarding use of narcotics
- D. Prescribed medication should be administered freely during the first 24 hours postoperatively
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Understanding how prescribed drugs work helps patients manage pain effectively.
Fertilization usually occurs in the nuclear division only. ______.
- A. Meiosis produces two
- B. ovary
- C. vesicular (Graafian) follicle
- D. Meiosis occurs in all cells of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because meiosis occurs in all cells of the body. Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and egg cells) with half the number of chromosomes. Fertilization, the fusion of sperm and egg, typically occurs after meiosis in the reproductive organs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the process of fertilization or meiosis occurring in all cells. Choice A talks about the outcome of meiosis, choice B refers to a specific organ, and choice C mentions a stage in the development of an egg cell.
Your 20 year old male patient is c/o growths on his penile shaft. He noticed them first about 6 weeks ago, and he thinks there are more now. Denies pain with intercourse or urination. He has had 3 former partners and has been with his current girlfriend for 6 months. She is on the pill so they do not use condoms. Denies fever, weight loss, night sweats. His PMH is unremarkable. He is in college part time and works in construction and is engaged to be married and has no children. On exam, you see several moist papules along all sides of the penile shaft and two on the corona. He has been circumcised. On palpation of his inguinal region there is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Which abnormality of the penis does this patient most likely have?
- A. Condylomata acuminata
- B. Genital herpes
- C. Syphilitic chancre
- D. Penile carcinoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Condylomata acuminata (genital warts) based on the patient's presentation of painless moist papules on the penile shaft and corona, multiple sexual partners, lack of other systemic symptoms, and absence of inguinal lymphadenopathy. This is consistent with HPV infection, the most likely cause of genital warts. Genital herpes (B) typically presents as painful vesicles or ulcers, syphilitic chancre (C) presents as a painless ulcer, and penile carcinoma (D) usually presents as a solitary, indurated, ulcerated lesion with associated lymphadenopathy.