Nokea
Which of the following has the shortest elimination half-life?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Morphine
- C. Methadone
- D. Remifentanil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elimination half-life measures how quickly a drug is cleared from plasma. Naloxone's half-life is about 1-2 hours, used for opioid reversal. Morphine's is 2-4 hours, reflecting its duration as an analgesic. Methadone's is long, 15-60 hours, suiting addiction maintenance. Fentanyl's is 2-4 hours, typical for anesthesia. Remifentanil, an ultra-short-acting opioid, has a half-life of 3-10 minutes due to rapid esterase metabolism, making it ideal for procedures needing quick offset. Its brevity contrasts with others, ensuring minimal residual effects, a key advantage in critical care settings where rapid recovery is essential.
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A 55-year-old man with a 40 pack-year history of smoking develops agranulocytosis and some leukemic features. His physical examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are within normal limits. Should this disease relate to a potential toxic exposure, which of the following should be considered most likely?
- A. Benzene
- B. Ethylene alcohol
- C. Carbon tetrachloride
- D. Methanol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she has missed taking several of her contraceptive pills during the current cycle. What is the best instruction for the nurse to give the client?
- A. Please come into the clinic immediately to have a pregnancy test done.'
- B. You might consider another form of birth control if you keep missing your pills.'
- C. If you have missed fewer than three of your pills, you do not need to worry.'
- D. You should use an alternative form of birth control for the rest of this cycle.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Missing several contraceptive pills compromises efficacy, requiring an alternative method for the cycle to prevent pregnancy. Testing assesses outcome, not prevention. Future methods don't address now. Fewer than three still risks failure. D ensures immediate protection, making it the best instruction.
When preparing to administer IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Infuse the medication over 1 hour.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes during infusion.
- C. Administer a stool softener.
- D. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours during infusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to infuse IV Acyclovir over at least 1 hour to prevent nephrotoxicity. Rapid infusion can lead to adverse effects, so a slow infusion rate is crucial for patient safety. Monitoring blood pressure, administering a stool softener, or monitoring blood glucose levels are not directly related to the administration of IV Acyclovir for Herpes Zoster.
A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
- D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Sucralfate is to take the medication on an empty stomach. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, which is most effective when the stomach is empty. Taking it with food or other medications may decrease its effectiveness. Instructing the client to take Sucralfate on an empty stomach helps ensure optimal therapeutic benefits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing high-sodium foods is not related to Sucralfate therapy, taking the medication with a full glass of milk is not recommended as it may decrease its effectiveness, and the presence of black and tarry stools is not an expected outcome of Sucralfate.
A client has a new prescription for Etravirine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication at the same time every day.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in teaching the client is to take Etravirine at the same time every day. This ensures consistent blood levels and effectiveness of the medication. Consistent timing is essential to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and avoid missing doses. Choices A and B are incorrect because Etravirine should not necessarily be taken with or without food; it is more important to take it consistently. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to take Etravirine at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.