Nokea
Which of the following inhaled anesthetics has rapid onset and recovery?
- A. Nitrous oxide
- B. Desflurane
- C. Sevoflurane
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Nitrous oxide, Desflurane, and Sevoflurane are all inhaled anesthetics known for their rapid onset and recovery. Nitrous oxide is rapid due to its low blood-gas solubility, while Desflurane and Sevoflurane are quick-acting because of their low solubility and fast elimination from the body. Therefore, all three options meet the criteria of having rapid onset and recovery. The other choices are incorrect because they do not fully encompass all the anesthetics that exhibit these characteristics.
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Indicate the anxiolitic agent,which relieves anxiety without causing marked sedative effects:
- A. Diazepam
- B. Chlordiazepoxid
- C. Buspirone
- D. Clorazepate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Buspirone. Buspirone is an anxiolytic agent that relieves anxiety without causing marked sedative effects. It works by specifically targeting serotonin receptors in the brain to reduce anxiety, unlike benzodiazepines like Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide, and Clorazepate which act on GABA receptors leading to sedative effects. Buspirone's unique mechanism of action makes it an ideal choice for treating anxiety without causing sedation.
A patient is started on a diuretic for antihypertensive therapy. The nurse expects that a drug in which class is likely to be used initially?
- A. Loop diuretics
- B. Osmotic diuretics
- C. Thiazide diuretics
- D. Potassium-sparing diuretics
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thiazide diuretics. Thiazide diuretics are commonly used as first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure by promoting diuresis. They work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased fluid volume and lower blood pressure. Thiazides are well-tolerated and have shown to reduce cardiovascular events in hypertensive patients.
Loop diuretics (A) are more potent and are typically reserved for patients with more severe fluid overload conditions. Osmotic diuretics (B) are used for acute renal failure or cerebral edema, not for hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics (D) are typically used in combination with thiazides to prevent hypokalemia, not as initial therapy.
An individual with poststroke depression is receiving an SSRI. What is the rationale for giving the medication at breakfast and again at midday?
- A. Prevent insomnia
- B. Prevent toxic reactions
- C. Decrease afternoon sleepiness
- D. Give an opportunity to monitor behavior closely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Prevent insomnia
Rationale:
1. SSRIs can cause insomnia as a side effect.
2. Administering the medication in the morning helps prevent insomnia by reducing the likelihood of disrupting sleep patterns.
3. Giving the medication at midday ensures the drug is still effective during the day without causing sleep disturbances at night.
Summary:
B: Prevent toxic reactions - Timing of SSRI administration does not directly impact the prevention of toxic reactions.
C: Decrease afternoon sleepiness - Administering SSRI at midday may not directly decrease afternoon sleepiness.
D: Give an opportunity to monitor behavior closely - Monitoring behavior is important but not directly related to timing of SSRI administration.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client taking a benzodiazepine. Which client statement would indicate a need for further follow-up instructions?
- A. “I will need scheduled blood work in order to monitor for toxic levels of this drug.”
- B. “I won’t stop taking this medication abruptly because there could be serious complications.”
- C. “I will not drink alcohol while taking this medication.”
- D. “I won’t take extra doses of this drug because I can become addicted.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because benzodiazepines do not typically require routine blood level monitoring. Monitoring for toxicity is generally done through clinical assessment rather than blood tests. Choice B is correct as abrupt withdrawal of benzodiazepines can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Choice D is correct as benzodiazepines have a potential for addiction and should not be taken in higher doses than prescribed.
A 10-year-old patient will be started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin) therapy. The nurse will perform which essential baseline assessment before this drug is started?
- A. Eye examination
- B. Height and weight
- C. Liver studies
- D. Hearing test
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Height and weight. Before starting methylphenidate therapy in a 10-year-old patient, it is essential to assess height and weight as this medication can affect growth and appetite. Monitoring these parameters at baseline helps establish a reference point for future assessment of treatment effects on growth. Eye examination (A) is important for long-term monitoring but not essential before starting therapy. Liver studies (C) are not typically required before starting methylphenidate therapy. Hearing test (D) is not directly related to starting this medication.