Nokea
Which of the following is a cause of secondary neutropaenia in adults?
- A. Congenital
- B. Anti-hypertensive drugs
- C. Part of general pancytopaenia
- D. Familial
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Secondary neutropenia in adults is often a part of general pancytopenia, which involves a decrease in all three blood cell types. This can be caused by factors such as bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or certain medications. Neutropenia is not typically congenital or familial in adults, and anti-hypertensive drugs are not commonly known to directly cause secondary neutropenia. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the common etiology of secondary neutropenia in adults.
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The following pathological features is true regarding non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
- A. Classical Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are neoplastic cells
- B. B cell phenotype is more common
- C. Contiguous group of lymph nodes are affected
- D. It is not associated with leukemic phase of disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because B cell phenotype is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). This is supported by the fact that the majority of NHL cases arise from B cells in the lymphoid tissue. Choice A is incorrect as RS cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma, not NHL. Choice C is incorrect because NHL can involve non-contiguous lymph nodes. Choice D is incorrect because NHL can have a leukemic phase known as leukemic lymphoma.
A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site.
- C. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.
- D. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour. This position helps prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the site. Elevating the head of the bed (A) is not necessary for this procedure. Applying a 2-inch gauze dressing (B) may disrupt the site and increase the risk of bleeding. Using half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound (C) is not recommended for bone marrow aspiration sites as it can lead to infection.
A nurse should identify that clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients who have which of the following conditions?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Patients with peptic ulcer disease are at a higher risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, so clopidogrel is contraindicated. Myocardial infarction, pancreatitis, and myasthenia gravis are not contraindications for clopidogrel use.
A 14-year-old Syrian male with beta thalassemia major has relocated to your community as a refugee. He has been receiving chronic transfusion therapy in Turkey for the past 3 years. On his first visit, you notice that his height is below the fifth percentile. He has skin discoloration and hepatosplenomegaly. His mother reports they have not had regular access to chelation therapy. Laboratory testing shows a serum ferritin of 6,200 ng/mL. A cardiac MRI shows grossly normal cardiac function but a T2* value of 9 ms. What is the most likely cause of his short stature?
- A. Lack of regular blood transfusion causing growth failure
- B. Cirrhosis and liver failure
- C. Ineffective erythropoiesis and chronic anemia
- D. Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Growth hormone deficiency due to iron deposition in the pituitary. Iron overload in patients with beta thalassemia major can lead to iron deposition in various organs, including the pituitary gland, impairing its function. This can result in growth hormone deficiency, leading to short stature. In this case, the patient's history of chronic transfusions and high serum ferritin level indicate iron overload, which can affect the pituitary gland. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because growth failure in beta thalassemia major is primarily attributed to endocrine complications such as growth hormone deficiency, rather than lack of transfusions, cirrhosis, or ineffective erythropoiesis.
A patient receiving blood begins complaining of severe chest pain and a feeling of warmth. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call the physician.
- B. Administer diuretics as ordered.
- C. Discontinue the blood transfusion.
- D. Assess vital signs and cardiovascular status.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action is to discontinue the blood transfusion (Choice C). This is because the patient's symptoms of severe chest pain and warmth suggest a possible transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. By stopping the transfusion, the nurse can prevent further harm to the patient. Calling the physician (Choice A) can be done after stopping the transfusion. Administering diuretics (Choice B) without knowing the cause of symptoms can exacerbate the situation. Assessing vital signs and cardiovascular status (Choice D) is important but should come after stopping the transfusion to prioritize patient safety.