Nokea
Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-written goal?
- A. Goals should be vague
- B. Goals should be unrealistic
- C. Goals need to be measurable, realistic, and achievable
- D. Goals should be easy to achieve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because well-written goals need to be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). Measurable goals allow for tracking progress, realistic goals are attainable, and achievable goals are within reach. Vague goals (A) lack clarity, unrealistic goals (B) may lead to frustration, and goals that are too easy to achieve (D) do not challenge individuals to grow and improve. Therefore, option C is the best choice for a well-written goal.
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What is the primary focus of transitional care?
- A. To improve clinical outcomes
- B. To manage chronic diseases
- C. To facilitate smooth transitions between care settings
- D. To support family caregivers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary focus of transitional care is to facilitate smooth transitions between care settings. This involves ensuring continuity of care, coordination between healthcare providers, and patient education during transitions. This helps prevent medical errors, improve patient safety, and reduce hospital readmissions. Managing chronic diseases (B) and improving clinical outcomes (A) are important aspects but not the primary focus. While supporting family caregivers (D) is crucial, it is not the main goal of transitional care.
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?
- A. Screening for diabetes
- B. Vaccination programs
- C. Emergency response planning
- D. Chronic disease management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vaccination programs. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of disease before it occurs. Vaccination programs are a classic example as they protect individuals from contracting infectious diseases, thus preventing the occurrence of the disease in the first place. Screening for diabetes (A) is a form of secondary prevention, aiming to detect the condition early to prevent complications. Emergency response planning (C) focuses on preparedness for disasters rather than preventing diseases. Chronic disease management (D) involves managing existing conditions rather than preventing their occurrence.
How will working in a high-volume, noisy emergency room in an urban area with a high incidence of assault victims affect staff?
- A. Feelings of extreme overload.
- B. Fear of failure.
- C. A pessimistic sense about the world.
- D. Inability to separate intense work situations from personal situations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fear of failure. Working in a high-volume, noisy emergency room with a high incidence of assault victims can lead to staff experiencing fear of failure due to the intense and high-pressure nature of the work environment. Staff may feel overwhelmed by the constant influx of critical cases and the need to make quick decisions, which can contribute to a fear of not being able to save every patient. This fear can impact their confidence and increase stress levels.
Incorrect choices:
A: Feelings of extreme overload - While staff may feel overwhelmed, the specific impact mentioned in this choice is not directly related to the work environment described.
C: A pessimistic sense about the world - This choice is too broad and not necessarily tied to the specific challenges of working in this type of emergency room.
D: Inability to separate intense work situations from personal situations - While this can be a challenge, it is not the primary effect discussed in the question stem.
A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam
- A. every 2 years
- B. as soon as possible
- C. when the patient is 39 years old
- D. within the first year after diagnosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (as soon as possible) because individuals with type 2 diabetes are at risk for diabetic retinopathy, a complication that can lead to vision loss. Early detection through a dilated eye exam allows for timely intervention to prevent or slow down progression. Choice A (every 2 years) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Choice C (when the patient is 39 years old) is not specific to the individual's diabetes diagnosis. Choice D (within the first year after diagnosis) is too delayed for optimal monitoring. Thus, scheduling a dilated eye exam as soon as possible is crucial for early detection and management of diabetic retinopathy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diarrhea due to shigella. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement for this client?
- A. Have the client wear a mask when receiving visitors.
- B. Limit the client's time with visitors to no more than 30 minutes per day.
- C. Assign the client to a room with negative-pressure airflow exchange.
- D. Wear a gown when caring for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit the client's time with visitors to no more than 30 minutes per day. This is the correct precaution because shigella is transmitted through fecal-oral route. By limiting the client's time with visitors, the risk of spreading the infection to others is minimized.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Having the client wear a mask when receiving visitors is not necessary for preventing the spread of shigella, as it is not transmitted through the air.
C: Assigning the client to a room with negative-pressure airflow exchange is more suitable for airborne infections, not for shigella which is transmitted through fecal-oral route.
D: While wearing a gown when caring for the client is a good infection control practice, it is not specifically indicated for preventing the spread of shigella through contact with visitors.