Which of the following is a common cause of uterine atony?
- A. uterine overdistention
- B. excessive uterine contractions
- C. placental abruption
- D. infection or retained placenta
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: uterine overdistention. Uterine atony is when the uterus fails to contract effectively after childbirth. Overdistention, such as from multiple gestation or large baby, can stretch the uterus, leading to poor muscle tone. This results in inadequate contractions to control bleeding. Excessive uterine contractions (B) are not a common cause but rather can lead to other issues like uterine rupture. Placental abruption (C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, causing bleeding but not directly related to atony. Infection or retained placenta (D) can contribute to uterine atony but are not common primary causes.
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In preparing a pregnant patient for a nonstress test (NST), which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Have the patient void prior to being placed on the fetal monitor because a full bladder will interfere with results.
- B. Maintain NPO status prior to testing.
- C. Position the patient for comfort, adjusting the tocotransducer belt to locate fetal heart rate.
- D. Have an infusion pump prepared with oxytocin per protocol for evaluation.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient should be positioned comfortably, and the tocotransducer should be adjusted to obtain an accurate fetal heart rate reading.
Which spice is safe for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?
- A. Ginger
- B. Sage
- C. Cloves
- D. Nutmeg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ginger is widely recognized as a safe and effective complementary therapy for managing nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Which hormone is responsible for converting the endometrium into decidual cells for implantation?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- C. Human placental lactogen
- D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: At high levels, progesterone maintains the endometrial lining for implantation of the zygote.
A 22-year-old woman presents to the labor and delivery unit in labor at 39 weeks gestation. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Prepare for delivery
- B. Administer pain relief medications
- C. Continue to monitor contractions and fetal heart rate
- D. Perform a vaginal examination to check for fetal descent
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continue to monitor contractions and fetal heart rate. At 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced, the woman is in active labor, but delivery is not imminent. Monitoring contractions and fetal heart rate is crucial to ensure the progress of labor and fetal well-being. This step allows the nurse to assess for any signs of fetal distress or labor progression. Administering pain relief medications (B) can be considered based on the woman's pain level, but it is not the immediate priority. Preparing for delivery (A) is premature at this stage. Performing a vaginal examination (D) may not be necessary unless there are concerns about fetal descent or progress of labor.
The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who is 24 weeks gestation and reports nausea, vomiting, and weight loss. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Instruct the patient to eat a high-protein diet and avoid fluids during meals.
- B. Encourage the patient to rest and avoid any exercise.
- C. Assess the patient's hydration status and notify the healthcare provider if necessary.
- D. Recommend over-the-counter anti-nausea medications to control symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the patient's hydration status and notify the healthcare provider if necessary.
Rationale:
1. Nausea, vomiting, and weight loss in pregnancy may indicate hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of morning sickness that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
2. Assessing hydration status is crucial to determine the severity of the condition and guide appropriate interventions.
3. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for further evaluation, possible treatment adjustments, and monitoring to prevent complications.
Summary:
A: Instructing the patient to eat a high-protein diet and avoid fluids during meals does not address the immediate concern of dehydration and may worsen symptoms.
B: Encouraging the patient to rest and avoid exercise is important but does not address the primary issue of dehydration.
D: Recommending over-the-counter anti-nausea medications may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause or hydration status.