Nokea
Which of the following is a common complication associated with untreated clubfoot in infants?
- A. Scoliosis
- B. Hip dysplasia
- C. Osteomyelitis
- D. Cerebral palsy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hip dysplasia is a common complication associated with untreated clubfoot in infants. If clubfoot is not treated promptly and properly, it can lead to abnormal development of the hip joint, resulting in hip dysplasia. This condition involves the abnormal formation of the hip socket, which can cause instability and potential dislocation of the hip joint. Early identification and treatment of clubfoot are important in preventing complications such as hip dysplasia.
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During a support group meeting, Nurse Donato, in a teasing manner, has made several provocative remarks about your appearance and behavior as a group leader. Select your MOST appropriate response.
- A. "Donato, see me after this meeting"
- B. "Donato, you are excused from the group"
- C. "What do you think Donato is trying to tell us?"
- D. "Donato, what are you saying is inappropriate"
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Choosing option D, "Donato, what you are saying is inappropriate," is the most appropriate response in this situation. It directly addresses Nurse Donato's behavior without escalating the situation or being overly confrontational. By calmly pointing out that the remarks are inappropriate, you are setting a boundary and letting Nurse Donato know that such behavior is not acceptable in a professional setting. This response also signals to the rest of the group that you are aware of the inappropriate comments and are taking action to address them. It is important to address such behavior professionally and assertively to maintain a respectful and supportive environment during the support group meeting.
When a patient develops a temperature of 39.8 degree centigrade after an abdominal surgery with an ongoing blood transfusion, the PACU nurse should notify the surgeon as this may indicate ______.
- A. abdominal tissue injury
- B. on going potential infection
- C. post-anesthesia drug reaction
- D. allergic reaction from blood transfusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A temperature of 39.8 degrees Celsius (103.6 degrees Fahrenheit) in a patient following abdominal surgery and ongoing blood transfusion may indicate an ongoing potential infection. During surgery, the body is exposed to various microorganisms, and the stress of surgery can weaken the immune system, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Blood transfusions also carry a risk of introducing infections if not properly screened. Therefore, in this situation, an elevated temperature may be a sign that an infection is developing, and prompt notification of the surgeon is important for further evaluation and management.
Which of the following clinical features is most characteristic of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
- A. Hypoxemia refractory to supplemental oxygen
- B. Severe cough with purulent sputum production
- C. Chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing
- D. Productive cough with hemoptysis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a serious and life-threatening condition characterized by rapid onset of respiratory failure, severe hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood), and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The hallmark of ARDS is severe hypoxemia that is difficult to correct even with high levels of supplemental oxygen. Patients with ARDS often require mechanical ventilation to maintain adequate oxygen levels. Severe cough with purulent sputum production, chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing, and productive cough with hemoptysis are not typical features of ARDS.
A patient presents with a painless, gradually enlarging mass in the left neck, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals thyroid follicular cells. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Thyroglossal duct cyst
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thyroid adenoma
- D. Thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation described is most consistent with a thyroid adenoma. Thyroid adenomas are benign neoplasms of the thyroid gland and can present as painless, gradually enlarging masses in the neck. Fine-needle aspiration cytology revealing thyroid follicular cells further supports the diagnosis of a thyroid adenoma. Thyroglossal duct cysts typically present as midline neck masses that move with swallowing, while lymphadenopathy presents as enlarged lymph nodes and may be associated with infection or malignancy. Thyroid carcinoma may also present as a neck mass but is more likely to be associated with other features such as vocal cord paralysis, hoarseness, or enlarged cervical lymph nodes.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Vestibular neuritis
- B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
- C. Ménière's disease
- D. Acoustic neuroma Ophthalmology
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus, along with unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests, is most consistent with vestibular neuritis. Vestibular neuritis is characterized by inflammation of the vestibular nerve leading to sudden onset vertigo that can last for hours to days. It is often associated with nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Unilateral weakness on vestibular function tests indicates dysfunction of one vestibular system. Differential diagnosis for this type of presentation includes other conditions such as Meniere's disease, BPPV, and acoustic neuroma. However, the combination of symptoms and unilateral vestibular weakness makes vestibular neuritis the most likely diagnosis in this case.