Which of the following is a common complication of anorexia nervosa?
- A. Hypertension and hyperglycemia.
- B. Cardiovascular instability and electrolyte imbalances.
- C. Insulin resistance and excessive weight gain.
- D. Severe dehydration and frequent urination.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiovascular instability and electrolyte imbalances. Anorexia nervosa can lead to severe malnutrition, causing cardiovascular issues like low heart rate and blood pressure. Electrolyte imbalances occur due to inadequate nutrient intake. Hypertension and hyperglycemia (choice A) are not common in anorexia. Insulin resistance and weight gain (choice C) are more associated with conditions like obesity. Severe dehydration and frequent urination (choice D) are not typical manifestations of anorexia.
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A patient has not come out of her room for breakfast. The nurse finds the patient moving restlessly about her room in a disorganized manner. The patient is talking to herself, and her verbal responses to the nurse are nonsensical and suggest disorientation. The nurse notices that the patient's skin is hot and dry, and her pupils are somewhat dilated. All these symptoms are significant departures from the patient's recent presentation. The patient is likely experiencing _____, and the nurse should _____.
- A. Anticholinergic toxicity"¦check vital signs and prepare to use a cooling blanket stat
- B. Relapse of her psychosis"¦administer PRN antipsychotic drugs and notify her physician
- C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome"¦contact her physician for a transfer to intensive care
- D. Agranulocytosis"¦hold her antipsychotic and draw blood for a complete blood count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinergic toxicity. The patient's symptoms of restlessness, disorganized behavior, nonsensical speech, disorientation, hot and dry skin, dilated pupils, and significant departure from recent presentation are classic signs of anticholinergic toxicity. Anticholinergic medications can lead to central nervous system and peripheral anticholinergic effects, causing confusion, delirium, hyperthermia, and dilated pupils. Checking vital signs and preparing to use a cooling blanket are appropriate initial interventions to address the symptoms.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the patient's symptoms and presentation. Choice B (Relapse of her psychosis) does not fully explain the physical symptoms such as hot and dry skin, dilated pupils, and disorientation. Choice C (Neuroleptic malignant syndrome) typically presents with muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, autonomic instability, and altered mental status, which are not completely consistent
Which one of the following definitions is incorrect?
- A. Delusions – A fixed false belief not based in reality
- B. Mental illness – A condition affecting thinking, mood, or behavior
- C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder – A disorder with intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors
- D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder – A disorder with intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An illusion is actually a misinterpretation of a real stimulus, not the perception of something that does not exist. The incorrect definition given in option D confuses an illusion with a hallucination, which is a false sensory perception without an external stimulus.
The physician and advanced practice nurse are considering which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient with schizophrenia who demonstrates auditory hallucinations, apathy, anhedonia, and poor social functioning. The patient is overweight and has hypertension. Bearing these facts in mind, the drug the nurse should advocate would be:
- A. clozapine (Clozaril).
- B. haloperidol (Haldol).
- C. olanzapine (Zyprexa).
- D. aripiprazole (Abilify).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: aripiprazole (Abilify). Aripiprazole is a second-generation antipsychotic that is less likely to cause weight gain and metabolic side effects compared to other antipsychotics. This is important since the patient is already overweight and has hypertension. Aripiprazole also has a lower risk of causing sedation, which can be beneficial for addressing apathy and anhedonia without worsening social functioning.
A: Clozapine is effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but is associated with significant weight gain and metabolic side effects.
B: Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic with a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects and is not ideal for a patient with hypertension.
C: Olanzapine is known for causing significant weight gain and metabolic effects, making it a less suitable choice for an overweight patient with hypertension.
Which nursing action should occur first regarding a patient who has a problem of sexual dysfunction or sexual disorder? The nurse should
- A. develop an understanding of human sexual response.
- B. assess the patient's sexual functioning and needs.
- C. acquire knowledge of the patient's sexual roles.
- D. clarify own personal values about sexuality.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clarifying the nurse's own personal values about sexuality is crucial before addressing a patient's sexual dysfunction. By understanding personal biases or judgments, the nurse can provide unbiased care. Assessing the patient's needs (B) should follow, as it directly addresses the patient's concerns. Developing an understanding of human sexual response (A) is important, but not as urgent as addressing personal values. Acquiring knowledge of the patient's sexual roles (C) is less relevant and should come after understanding the patient's needs.
An individual brought by ambulance to the emergency room is accompanied by a roommate. The patient fights against the restraints and shouts incoherently. The roommate reports that the patient was weak and confused on awakening this morning and about 3 hours ago began "rambling and talking crazy."Â A nurse notes that the patient's skin is flushed and dry. The priority nursing action is to:
- A. take the patient's vital signs.
- B. start intravenous fluids.
- C. administer a sedative.
- D. perform a mental status examination.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: take the patient's vital signs. This is the priority action because the patient is exhibiting signs of potential medical emergency, such as altered mental status, flushed and dry skin, and confusion. Vital signs can provide crucial information about the patient's condition and help determine the urgency of the situation. Starting intravenous fluids (B) may be necessary but should be based on the assessment of vital signs first. Administering a sedative (C) is not appropriate without knowing the underlying cause of the symptoms. Performing a mental status examination (D) is important but not the priority in this situation where the patient's physical condition needs immediate attention.