Nokea
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer?
- A. Multiparity
- B. Use of oral contraceptives
- C. Early age at menarche
- D. Family history of breast cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A family history of breast cancer is a known risk factor for the development of ovarian cancer. Individuals with a close relative (such as a mother, sister, or daughter) who has had breast cancer have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer. This increased risk is due to shared genetic factors that can predispose individuals to both breast and ovarian cancers. Therefore, having a family history of breast cancer is an important risk factor to consider in the assessment of ovarian cancer risk.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder?
- A. Attempting to reduce the dislocation by pulling on the affected arm.
- B. Applying a splint to immobilize the arm in the dislocated position.
- C. Providing analgesia and applying ice packs to the affected shoulder.
- D. Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For managing a conscious patient with a dislocated shoulder, the appropriate action is to provide analgesia to help manage the pain and discomfort associated with the dislocation. Applying ice packs to the affected shoulder can also help reduce swelling and provide some relief. It is important to refrain from attempting to reduce the dislocation by pulling on the affected arm, as this can cause further damage and worsen the injury. Applying a splint to immobilize the arm in the dislocated position is also not recommended, as this can lead to complications and hinder the reduction process. Administering intravenous fluids to prevent dehydration is not directly related to managing a dislocated shoulder in a conscious patient.
A patient presents with petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
- A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
- B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
- C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
- D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare but serious condition characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological abnormalities, fever, and renal dysfunction. The classic pentad of symptoms includes fever, neurologic changes, renal impairment, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. The presence of petechiae, purpura, and mucosal bleeding along with thrombocytopenia, elevated serum creatinine, and schistocytes on peripheral blood smear are consistent with TTP. In TTP, there is usually a deficiency of ADAMTS13 (a von Willebrand factor-cleaving protease) leading to excessive platelet adhesion, aggregation, and microthrombi formation within small blood vessels. Treatment typically
During the implementation process, the nurse should ensure a better assimilation of the teachings.
- A. serious lecturer
- B. conducive time and place
- C. Lecture to start at 11:00AM
- D. neophyte as sharer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Creating a conducive time and place for the teachings is crucial during the implementation process to ensure better assimilation by the staff. By choosing a suitable time that does not clash with other responsibilities and providing a comfortable environment for learning, the nurse can enhance the staff's understanding and retention of the teachings. This approach helps in engaging the staff effectively and facilitating a productive learning experience.
Which of the following dental conditions is characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often leading to tooth wear, muscle pain, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction?
- A. Dental caries
- B. Attrition
- C. Bruxism
- D. Periodontitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bruxism is the dental condition characterized by the involuntary grinding or clenching of teeth, often occurring during sleep. This habitual behavior can lead to tooth wear, muscle pain, headaches, and temporomandibular joint dysfunction. Dental caries (choice A) refers to tooth decay, while attrition (choice B) specifically refers to the wearing down of teeth due to forces like chewing. Periodontitis (choice D) is a condition involving inflammation and infection of the gums and supporting structures of the teeth. Among the choices provided, bruxism is the most fitting description for the condition characterized by tooth grinding and clenching.
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed lisinopril for blood pressure management. Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with lisinopril therapy?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Dry cough
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dry cough is the most commonly reported adverse effect associated with lisinopril therapy. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and the mechanism behind the cough is not completely understood but is thought to be related to the accumulation of bradykinin and substance P. This annoying dry cough can be a persistent issue for some patients on lisinopril, and it typically resolves once the medication is discontinued. Patients who experience this side effect should not ignore it and should consult their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible alternative medication options. Hyperkalemia, hypertension, and bradycardia are not commonly associated adverse effects of lisinopril therapy.