Nokea
Which of the following is an adverse reaction to topical nasal steroid?
- A. Rebound effect.
- B. Local ulceration.
- C. Increased nasal drainage.
- D. Suppression of healing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Local ulceration. Topical nasal steroids can cause local irritation, leading to ulceration in the nasal mucosa. This occurs due to the steroid's potent anti-inflammatory effects on the nasal tissues. Rebound effect (choice A) is associated with nasal decongestant sprays, not nasal steroids. Increased nasal drainage (choice C) is not typically an adverse reaction to nasal steroids. Suppression of healing (choice D) is not a common side effect of topical nasal steroids.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse evaluates an improvement in the patient's heart failure (HF) status based on what assessment finding?
- A. Improved mental status.
- B. Using fewer pillows at night.
- C. Increased skin turgor.
- D. Heart rate regular.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Using fewer pillows at night. This indicates decreased fluid retention, a common symptom of heart failure. Improved mental status (A) may not directly correlate with HF improvement. Increased skin turgor (C) is more related to dehydration. A regular heart rate (D) is a positive sign but not specific to HF improvement.
The parent of a 5-year-old child asks the nurse to recommend an over-the-counter pain medication for the child. Which analgesic will the nurse recommend?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- B. Ibuprofen (Motrin).
- C. Aspirin (Ecotrin).
- D. Diflunisal (Dolobid).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acetaminophen (Tylenol). Acetaminophen is recommended for children due to its safety profile and effectiveness in reducing pain and fever. Ibuprofen and aspirin can be used in children over 6 months old, but aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Diflunisal is not typically used in children. In summary, acetaminophen is the safest and most appropriate choice for a 5-year-old child's pain relief.
A patient who has recently begun taking captopril (Capoten) to treat HTN calls a clinic to report a persistent cough. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Reassure the client that this is nothing to worry about and will diminish over time.
- B. Tell the patient to stop taking the drug immediately as this is a serious side effect of the drug.
- C. Schedule an appointment with the provider to discuss changing to an ARB.
- D. Instruct the patient to go to the emergency room immediately as this is a hypersensitivity reaction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should schedule an appointment with the provider to discuss changing to an ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker). Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent cough as a common side effect due to increased bradykinin levels. Switching to an ARB, which works similarly but does not affect bradykinin levels, can resolve the cough while still effectively treating hypertension.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Incorrect. Persistent cough with captopril is not something to be disregarded as it can impact the patient's quality of life and adherence to treatment.
B: Incorrect. Stopping the medication abruptly without provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled hypertension.
D: Incorrect. A hypersensitivity reaction typically involves more severe symptoms beyond just a cough.
What is the responsibility of the nurse related to the patient's drug therapy? Select all that apply.
- A. Teaching the patient how to cope with therapy to ensure the best outcome.
- B. Altering the drug regime to optimize the outcome.
- C. Evaluating the effectiveness of therapy.
- D. Providing therapy as well as medications.
- E. Recommending over-the-counter medications to treat adverse effects of prescription drug therapy.
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A and C. A nurse's responsibility related to a patient's drug therapy includes teaching the patient how to cope with therapy for optimal outcomes (A) and evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy (C). Teaching the patient ensures they understand how to take medications correctly and manage any side effects. Evaluating effectiveness allows for adjustments in the treatment plan if needed. Choices B, D, and E are incorrect. B - altering the drug regime should be done by the prescribing healthcare provider, not the nurse. D - providing therapy is beyond the scope of a nurse's responsibilities, as they focus on administering medications and supporting the patient. E - recommending over-the-counter medications falls under the purview of a pharmacist or physician, not a nurse.
The nurse receives an order for a triptan for a patient diagnosed with a cluster headache. What drug should be indicated for this purpose?
- A. Sumatriptan (Imitrex).
- B. Naratriptan (Amerge).
- C. Frovatriptan (Frova).
- D. Almotriptan (Axert).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sumatriptan (Imitrex). Sumatriptan is the drug of choice for treating cluster headaches due to its rapid onset of action and high efficacy in relieving symptoms. It works by constricting blood vessels in the brain and blocking pain pathways. Naratriptan, Frovatriptan, and Almotriptan are also triptans but are not as effective or fast-acting as Sumatriptan for cluster headaches. Therefore, they are not the ideal choice. Summarily, Sumatriptan is the preferred option for managing cluster headaches due to its quick and potent action compared to other triptans.