Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
- A. protozoans
- B. algae
- C. helminths
- D. fungi
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.
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Francisella tularensis is a:
- A. spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium
- B. non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium
- C. non-spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium
- D. spore forming non-capsulated gram-negative bacterium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: non-spore forming encapsulated gram-negative bacterium. Francisella tularensis is a non-spore forming bacterium, which rules out choices A and D. It is encapsulated, which eliminates choice C. The encapsulation of the bacterium helps it evade the host immune system, leading to its pathogenicity. This encapsulated bacterium is responsible for causing the zoonotic disease tularemia in humans.
Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Listeria monocytogenes
- C. Salmonella
- D. All are correct
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.
A wound culture grew Gram-negative rods that were oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenters. What is the most likely microorganism?
- A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- B. Escherichia coli
- C. Salmonella typhi
- D. Shigella dysenteriae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. P. aeruginosa is a Gram-negative rod that is oxidase-positive and lactose non-fermenting. The positive oxidase test indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, a characteristic of P. aerugin. E. coli is lactose fermenting. Salmonella and Shigella are also Gram-negative rods, but they are lactose fermenters, unlike the lactose non-fermenting P. aeruginosa.
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease and rare complication of:
- A. strep throat
- B. gangrene
- C. brucellosis
- D. tularemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rheumatic fever is caused by untreated strep throat. Step 1: Strep throat is caused by Streptococcus bacteria. Step 2: If strep throat is not treated with antibiotics, it may lead to rheumatic fever due to the body's immune response attacking its own tissues. Summary: Gangrene, brucellosis, and tularemia are not associated with rheumatic fever.
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules. What is the likely microorganism?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- D. Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. The description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with pointed ends and capsules matches the morphology of S. pneumoniae. This bacterium is known to cause pneumonia, especially in individuals with underlying conditions like COPD. Staphylococcus aureus (B) typically appears in clusters, not pairs. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. Neisseria meningitidis (D) is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a cocci. Hence, based on the morphology and clinical context, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the likely microorganism causing pneumonia in this patient.