Nokea
Which of the following is considered an internal disaster?
- A. A patient fall
- B. The massive spread of pneumonia
- C. A computer hacking episode
- D. Unexpected staff absences due to illness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A computer hacking episode is considered an internal disaster as it disrupts the internal operations of the healthcare facility, compromising data security and potentially impacting patient care. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to internal disasters in a healthcare setting. A patient fall is a patient safety issue, the massive spread of pneumonia is a public health concern, and unexpected staff absences due to illness may affect staffing levels but are not typically classified as internal disasters.
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You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?
- A. It is normal among adolescents.
- B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
- C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
- D. It is not a normal finding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.
A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?
- A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
- B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
- C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
- D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.
Which of the following is expected to be most likely true in the near future?
- A. Quality improvement projects will decline due to cost-cutting measures.
- B. Alternative and complementary approaches will gain acceptance in medical practice.
- C. Care will primarily shift away from the hospital setting.
- D. Increased focus on care transitions will involve nursing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the near future, there will be an increased focus on care transitions involving nursing. This means that nurses will play a crucial role in preparing patients for transitions between different care settings, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because quality improvement projects are essential and are not expected to decline. Choice B is incorrect as alternative and complementary approaches are increasingly being integrated into medical practice. Choice C is incorrect as there is a growing trend towards providing care in community settings and homes, moving away from primarily hospital-based care.
A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
- B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
- C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
- D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.
A client with type 1 DM has a finger stick glucose level of 258mg/dl at bedtime. An order for sliding scale insulin exists. The nurse should:
- A. Call the physician
- B. Encourage the intake of fluids
- C. Administer the insulin as ordered
- D. Give the client ½ cup of orange juice
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with type 1 DM has a high glucose level at bedtime. The appropriate action for the nurse is to administer the sliding scale insulin as ordered. This insulin regimen is specifically designed to manage high blood glucose levels. Calling the physician is not necessary as the protocol for sliding scale insulin is already in place. Encouraging fluid intake or providing orange juice is not the correct intervention for addressing high blood glucose levels in this case.