Nokea
Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
- A. Morphine
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Hydromorpho
- D. Acetaminoph en
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is not an opioid or NSAID. It is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it works in a different way compared to opioids and NSAIDs. Unlike opioids, acetaminophen does not have the same risk of physical dependence or addiction. And unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is often used for mild to moderate pain relief and as a fever reducer. Be cautious when taking acetaminophen, as high doses can be harmful to the liver.
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A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered
- A. . The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordere
- B. What is the nurse™s best response?
- C. It will increase your heart rat
- D.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to inform the patient that the medication, likely an antiarrhythmic agent such as digoxin immune fab (Digibind), helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm caused by digoxin toxicity to a more normal rhythm. This explanation provides a clear understanding of why the medication is being administered in cases of digoxin toxicity. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about the purpose of the medication and how it will help manage the symptoms of digoxin toxicity.
A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?
- A. Allergic
- B. Mast cell mediated
- C. Neurogenic
- D. Psychogenic
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lidocaine allergy causing an issue with suturing suggests an allergic reaction , likely IgE-mediated (overlapping with B, but A is broader). Neurogenic , psychogenic , and vascular (E) don't fit. True local anesthetic allergies are rare but explain this history.
Morphine over dose is treated with_____
- A. Naloxone
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Time
- D. Grapefruit juice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Morphine overdose is a medical emergency that can result in respiratory depression and potentially lead to death. Naloxone is a medication used to counteract the effects of opioids like morphine by binding to the same receptors in the brain and reversing the respiratory depression. Naloxone works quickly to restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on morphine. It is a critical intervention used to prevent fatal outcomes of opioid overdose, including morphine. Other options like Vitamin K, time, and grapefruit juice are not effective treatments for morphine overdose.
An overwhelmed nursing student asks the instructor whether there are any tips that will make learning pharmacology easier. The instructor gives an example of the anticoagulant heparin. The instructor indicates that knowing heparin and comparing other drugs to it will facilitate learning the many anticoagulants. Which approach is the instructor using?
- A. Mechanism of action approach
- B. Generic name approach
- C. Trade name approach
- D. Prototype drug approach
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The prototype approach uses a representative drug like heparin to learn a class (anticoagulants), comparing others to its traits-mechanism, effects, side effects-simplifying study. Mechanism of action is narrower. Generic or trade names focus on nomenclature, not learning strategy. Prototype leverages a familiar example, a proven method for mastering drug groups.
A 48-year-old woman pricks her finger on a rose bush while pruning. A few days later, she develops small, red lesions near the wound and a red track ascending her hand toward her trunk. Her doctor prescribes itraconazole for the sporotrichosis. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
- A. Disrupts fungal cell membrane by forming pores (nystatin, amphotericin B)
- B. Disrupts fungal microtubules (griseofulvin)
- C. Inhibits conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol
- D. Inhibits squalene monooxygenase (terbinafine)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sporotrichosis, from Sporothrix schenckii, requires antifungals like itraconazole. Option , inhibiting lanosterol to ergosterol conversion, is correct-itraconazole blocks 14-α-demethylase, disrupting fungal membrane synthesis. Option , pore formation, is amphotericin B's mechanism. Option , microtubule disruption, is griseofulvin's. Option , squalene monooxygenase inhibition, is terbinafine's. Option (E), 5-FU conversion, is flucytosine's. Itraconazole's ergosterol inhibition effectively treats this subcutaneous infection, targeting fungal viability.