Nokea
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of type 2 diabetes Mellitus?
- A. Increased production of glucose from the liver
- B. Insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues
- C. Destruction of beta cell from autoimmune mechanism which result in lack of insulin and hyperglycemia
- D. Defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance in the peripheral tissues and defective beta cell secretion with loss of insulin. In type 2 diabetes, there is typically not destruction of beta cells from an autoimmune mechanism that leads to lack of insulin and hyperglycemia as seen in type 1 diabetes mellitus. Instead, in type 2 diabetes, the pancreas initially produces insulin, but the body's cells become resistant to its effects. This results in hyperglycemia due to the inability of the body to properly regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, choice C is not true for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
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The diagnostic examination for osteoporosis is geared towards measuring
- A. Bone density
- B. Weight
- C. Blood volume
- D. Height
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The diagnostic examination for osteoporosis typically involves measuring bone density. This is usually done through a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan, which is considered the gold standard for assessing bone density. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, leading to increased bone fragility and risk of fractures. Measuring bone density helps in diagnosing osteoporosis by identifying areas of low bone density, assessing the risk of fractures, and monitoring the effectiveness of treatment. Weight, blood volume, and height are not directly used as primary indicators for diagnosing osteoporosis.
A woman in active labor has a prolonged second stage with inadequate expulsive efforts. What nursing intervention is appropriate to facilitate fetal descent?
- A. Encourage the mother to push forcefully during contractions.
- B. Apply fundal pressure to assist with fetal descent.
- C. Prepare for immediate cesarean section.
- D. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate for uterine relaxation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario of a woman in active labor experiencing a prolonged second stage with inadequate expulsive efforts, the appropriate nursing intervention to facilitate fetal descent would be to apply fundal pressure. Fundal pressure, or applying pressure on the upper abdomen just above the uterine fundus, can help in directing the fetal head downwards and aiding in the descent through the birth canal. It is important to note that fundal pressure should be applied carefully and with proper technique to prevent excessive force that could potentially harm the mother or the baby. Encouraging the mother to push forcefully during contractions can be helpful, but the addition of fundal pressure can provide extra assistance in cases of inadequate progress. Immediate cesarean section may be considered if other interventions are unsuccessful or if there are concerns for fetal distress. Administering intravenous magnesium sulfate for uterine relaxation is not indicated in this situation.
A patient presents with a yellowish-white spot on the cornea, surrounded by a ring of inflammation. Slit-lamp examination reveals branching, filamentous opacities extending from the corneal lesion. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Herpes simplex keratitis
- B. Bacterial keratitis
- C. Fungal keratitis
- D. Acanthamoeba keratitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The described presentation of a yellowish-white spot on the cornea with branching, filamentous opacities is characteristic of fungal keratitis. Fungal keratitis is typically associated with agricultural injuries, trauma involving plant material, or contact lens wear in agricultural environments. Fungal keratitis can be serious and may require intensive antifungal treatment to prevent vision loss. Prompt diagnosis and initiation of appropriate antifungal therapy are essential in managing fungal keratitis.
A patient presents with knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee. Physical examination reveals a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line. McMurray's test elicits pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation. Which condition is most likely?
- A. Patellar tendinitis
- B. Medial meniscus tear
- C. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain
- D. uadriceps tendon rupture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee, along with a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line, is highly suggestive of a meniscus injury. The McMurray's test specifically evaluates for meniscal tears. In this case, the presence of pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation indicates a medial meniscus tear as the most likely diagnosis. Patellar tendinitis usually presents with anterior knee pain that is worsened by activities such as jumping or running. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain typically presents with lateral knee pain and instability. Quadriceps tendon rupture would present with significant weakness and inability to fully extend the knee, which is not described in this scenario.
A patient has been advised by the psychiatrist that he needs inpatient hospitalization. The patient agrees, signs the admission forms, and agrees to receive treatment. What type of admission is this?
- A. Formal
- B. Informal
- C. Voluntary
- D. Involuntary
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This type of admission is considered voluntary because the patient willingly agrees to be admitted to the hospital for treatment. The patient has signed the admission forms and consented to receive the necessary care, indicating a willingness to participate in their treatment plan. In a voluntary admission, the individual retains the right to make decisions about their treatment and can choose to leave the hospital against medical advice if they wish to do so.