Nokea
Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Naloxone
- D. Toradol
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin. Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clotting. Protamine sulfate works by binding to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another type of anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain relief.
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A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?
- A. Prevents dysrhythmias
- B. Slows intestinal motility
- C. Dissolves blood clots
- D. Relieves pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
The following is most suitable for thromboembolic prophylaxis in a patient with a left ventricular aneurysm following a myocardial infarction three months ago:
- A. Intravenous heparin
- B. Subcutaneous enoxaparin
- C. Oral warfarin
- D. Oral aspirin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A left ventricular aneurysm post-MI risks thrombus formation due to stasis, necessitating anticoagulation. IV heparin is acute, not outpatient prophylaxis, impractical here. Subcutaneous enoxaparin prevents thromboembolism short-term (e.g., post-surgery), but its duration suits weeks, not months. Oral warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, provides long-term anticoagulation (INR 2-3), ideal for chronic prophylaxis against mural thrombi embolizing to systemic circulation, most suitable three months post-MI. Oral aspirin (antiplatelet) or aspirin plus clopidogrel targets arterial clots, less effective for ventricular stasis-related venous thrombi. Warfarin's sustained effect reduces stroke risk, critical in this structural heart defect.
A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Decreased libido
- D. B and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
What is the primary use of lithium?
- A. Lower blood glucose
- B. Slow the heart rate
- C. Stabilize mood
- D. Heal ulcers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
When teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Expect orange discoloration of urine and skin.
- B. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
- D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with a new prescription for Sulfasalazine is to expect orange discoloration of urine and skin. Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not necessitate discontinuation of the medication. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this expected outcome to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication.