Nokea
Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?
- A. Supine position.
- B. Fowler's position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Lateral recumbent position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.
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What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
- A. Heartburn.
- B. Nausea.
- C. Abdominal pain.
- D. Vomiting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heartburn. Heartburn is the most common symptom of GERD as it occurs due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This leads to a burning sensation in the chest that can worsen after eating, lying down, or bending over. Choice B, Nausea, is not typically the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in some cases. Choice C, Abdominal pain, is not a primary symptom of GERD and is more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions. Choice D, Vomiting, is also not the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in severe cases or as a result of complications.
Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Increased lung compliance.
- B. Decreased lung elasticity.
- C. Increased respiratory rate.
- D. Increased lung expansion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-potassium diet. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Potatoes
- C. Rice
- D. Apples
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium content, which can lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-potassium diet. Therefore, it is crucial for these clients to avoid bananas. Potatoes, rice, and apples are lower in potassium compared to bananas and are generally considered safe for consumption in clients with chronic renal failure on a low-potassium diet.
In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
- C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
- D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.
A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:
- A. Back of the mouth.
- B. Nose.
- C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
- D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.