Nokea
Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of substance abuse in adolescents?
- A. Poor school performance
- B. Change in sleep habits
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Changes in behavior
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Changes in behavior. This is the most common presenting sign of substance abuse in adolescents because substance use often leads to noticeable changes in behavior, such as irritability, mood swings, aggression, and withdrawal from family and friends. These behavioral changes are typically the first noticeable signs of substance abuse.
A: Poor school performance may be a consequence of substance abuse, but it is not necessarily the most common presenting sign.
B: Change in sleep habits can be a sign of substance abuse, but changes in behavior are more prominent and common.
C: Increased blood pressure is a physical symptom of substance abuse, but changes in behavior are usually more readily apparent and commonly observed in adolescents with substance abuse issues.
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When examining the breast, the "tail of Spence" would be located:
- A. In the upper inner quadrant
- B. In the lower inner quadrant
- C. In the lower outer quadrant
- D. Laterally across the anterior axillary fold
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The "tail of Spence" is an extension of breast tissue into the axilla. To locate it, visualize an imaginary line extending laterally from the breast towards the arm, crossing the anterior axillary fold. This is where the tail of Spence is found.
A: Incorrect. The upper inner quadrant is closer to the sternum.
B: Incorrect. The lower inner quadrant is below the nipple.
C: Incorrect. The lower outer quadrant is towards the armpit but not in the axilla like the tail of Spence.
Therefore, choice D is correct because the tail of Spence extends laterally across the anterior axillary fold.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman?
- A. Hirsutism
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Oligomenorrhea
- D. Acne
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer D: Acne is NOT a typical finding of hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman because hyperprolactinemia usually presents with symptoms related to hormonal imbalance, such as irregular menstrual cycles (oligomenorrhea), breast changes (gynecomastia), and excess body hair (hirsutism). Acne is not directly associated with elevated prolactin levels.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Hirsutism - Hirsutism is a common finding in hyperprolactinemia due to hormonal imbalances.
B: Gynecomastia - Gynecomastia can occur in hyperprolactinemia due to the suppression of testosterone.
C: Oligomenorrhea - Oligomenorrhea is a typical finding in hyperprolactinemia due to disruptions in the menstrual cycle.
The most appropriate medication indicated for reversing the anticoagulated effects of dabigatran etexilate (Pradaxa) is:
- A. Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Protamine sulfate
- D. Fondaparinux (Arixtra)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Idarucizumab is a specific reversal agent for dabigatran, directly binding to dabigatran to neutralize its anticoagulant effects.
2. Vitamin K is ineffective for dabigatran reversal, as it mainly works on reversing the effects of vitamin K antagonist anticoagulants like warfarin.
3. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal, not for direct thrombin inhibitor reversal like dabigatran.
4. Fondaparinux is a factor Xa inhibitor and not effective for reversing the effects of dabigatran.
A light is pointed at a patient's pupil, which contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?
- A. Direct reaction
- B. Consensual reaction
- C. Near reaction
- D. Accommodation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct term for the phenomenon described is "Consensual reaction" (Choice B). This occurs because the optic nerves from both eyes are connected, causing stimulation of one eye to result in a simultaneous response in the other eye due to the consensual pupillary reflex. The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Direct reaction refers to the pupil directly exposed to light contracting.
C: Near reaction refers to the pupillary response when focusing on a near object.
D: Accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust focus for near and far objects, not pupil constriction.
A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Dacryocystitis
- B. Chalazion
- C. Hordeolum
- D. Xanthelasma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hordeolum. A hordeolum, also known as a stye, presents as a red raised tender area at the margin of the eyelid. In this case, the absence of tearing upon palpation of the lesion suggests it is localized to the eyelid itself. Dacryocystitis (choice A) involves the lacrimal sac and would present with tearing. A chalazion (choice B) is a painless nodule on the eyelid, unlike the tender lesion described here. Xanthelasma (choice D) is characterized by yellowish plaques on the eyelids, not a red raised tender area.