Which of the following is the most important initial intervention for a patient with bulimia nervosa?
- A. Provide a structured mealtime environment with supervision.
- B. Encourage the patient to participate in support groups immediately.
- C. Administer antianxiety medications as prescribed.
- D. Assess the patient's family dynamics and home environment.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a structured mealtime environment with supervision. This is the most important initial intervention for a patient with bulimia nervosa because it addresses the immediate health concern of disordered eating behavior. By providing a structured mealtime environment with supervision, the patient can establish regular eating patterns, learn healthier eating habits, and reduce the risk of purging behaviors. This intervention also helps in restoring proper nutrition and addressing any underlying issues related to food and eating.
Choice B is incorrect because support groups may be beneficial but are not the most critical initial intervention. Choice C is incorrect as antianxiety medications do not directly address the disordered eating behavior. Choice D is also incorrect as assessing family dynamics and home environment is important but not as crucial as addressing the immediate eating disorder symptoms.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is to perform a complete assessment of a client in her home, using the Mini-Mental State Examination as one component. When the nurse arrives, the client is seated at the table with her husband, the TV is on, and several grandchildren are visiting. The client's husband says, 'Let's get on with this business.' The client is quiet, but her hands are gripped tightly, and she is staring at the ceiling. The best action for the nurse to take would be to:
- A. Explain to the husband that accurate data will be sought, and ask him to stay with the grandchildren in another room
- B. Explain the importance of the testing process and make an appointment for another day when the environment can be better controlled
- C. Not perform the test during the assessment (because it will not be valid) and rely on observations and reports from the family
- D. Ask the husband to make an appointment to bring his wife to the clinic for testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) in a distracting environment with the client exhibiting signs of distress would likely yield inaccurate results. By explaining the importance of the testing process and rescheduling for a quieter day, the nurse ensures a more accurate assessment. This allows for a controlled environment conducive to obtaining reliable data.
Choice A is incorrect because simply moving the husband and grandchildren to another room may not eliminate distractions or address the client's distress, potentially still impacting the accuracy of the assessment.
Choice C is incorrect as relying solely on observations and reports from the family may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's cognitive function, as the MMSE is a standardized tool designed for objective evaluation.
Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate issue of conducting the assessment in a more suitable environment and may disrupt the client's routine by requiring a clinic visit.
A 34-year-old male admitted with catatonic schizophrenia has been mute and motionless for several days while at home prior to admission. He still appears stuporous in the hospital. Which nursing intervention would be an initial priority?
- A. Orienting the client to the unit
- B. Assessing the client for physical problems
- C. Establishing a nonthreatening relationship
- D. Reinforcing reality with the client
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessing the client for physical problems. This is the initial priority because the client's muteness and motionless state could be due to an underlying physical issue that needs immediate attention, such as dehydration, malnutrition, or infection. By assessing for physical problems first, the nurse can rule out any urgent medical concerns before addressing the client's mental health needs.
A: Orienting the client to the unit - While important, this can be done after addressing any physical problems.
C: Establishing a nonthreatening relationship - Also essential, but assessing physical health takes precedence.
D: Reinforcing reality with the client - Not the immediate priority; physical assessment should come first.
A client has just been diagnosed with mild Alzheimer's disease. A family member asks what medications are used for treatment. The nurse knows that which of the following medications are the ones most used for mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
- B. Donepezil (Aricept)
- C. Rivastigmine (Exelon)
- D. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Donepezil (Aricept). Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to treat mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease by improving cognitive function. It is considered a first-line medication for Alzheimer's. Haloperidol (A) is an antipsychotic drug and not used for Alzheimer's treatment. Rivastigmine (C) is another cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil, but it is more commonly used for moderate to severe Alzheimer's. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (D) are not typically used for Alzheimer's treatment. In summary, Donepezil is the preferred medication for mild to moderate Alzheimer's due to its effectiveness in improving cognitive symptoms.
The dopamine-psychosis link is based on the observation that
- A. low dopamine levels of activity in the brain seem to produce psychotic symptoms
- B. there are high levels of dopamine activity in the brains of psychotic people
- C. there are high levels of amphetamine in the brains of schizophrenics
- D. dopamine interacts with serotonin creating psychosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated dopamine activity is associated with psychotic symptoms, especially in schizophrenia.
An adult experienced a myocardial infarction six months ago. At a follow-up visit, this adult says, 'I haven't had much interest in sex since my heart attack. I finished my rehabilitation program, but having sex strains my heart. I don't know if my heart is strong enough.' Which nursing diagnosis applies?
- A. Deficient knowledge related to faulty perception of health status
- B. Disturbed self-concept related to required lifestyle changes
- C. Disturbed body image related to treatment side effects
- D. Sexual dysfunction related to self-esteem disturbance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient knowledge related to faulty perception of health status. The patient's statement indicates a lack of understanding about their health status and the impact of their myocardial infarction on their sexual activity. The patient is attributing their decreased interest in sex to a fear of straining their heart, indicating a faulty perception of their health status. This nursing diagnosis addresses the patient's need for education and clarification about their condition to alleviate their concerns and improve their confidence in engaging in sexual activity safely.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's lack of knowledge and faulty perception about their health status. Disturbed self-concept (B) relates more to how the patient perceives themselves due to lifestyle changes, while disturbed body image (C) pertains to physical appearance changes. Sexual dysfunction (D) is related to difficulties in sexual function, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.