Nokea
Which of the following reasons would make a client who was treated successfully for a chlamydia infection at a greater risk for acquiring AIDS?
- A. The tissue irritation may be permanent, despite successful eradication of the bacteria.
- B. The immune system is already compromised.
- C. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis causes AIDS.
- D. The bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis continues to live inside the cells it has infected.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Having had an STI indicates existing vulnerabilities in the immune system, increasing susceptibility to HIV/AIDS.
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What is the function of the milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate?
- A. Enable sperm to swim
- B. Activate sperm
- C. Cleanse the urethra
- D. Neutralize urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The milky-colored fluid secreted from the prostate cleanses the urethra. This fluid helps neutralize the acidity of the urethra, providing a more suitable environment for sperm to survive. It does not enable sperm to swim or activate them, as these functions are performed by other components of semen. Additionally, it does not neutralize urine, as its primary function is to support sperm survival and motility.
Morphology of fibrocytic disease:
- A. Apocrine metaplasia
- B. Proliferation of ductules
- C. Epithelial hyperplasia
- D. Giant cell
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epithelial hyperplasia. Fibrocytic disease involves nonproliferative and proliferative fibrocystic changes in the breast tissue. Epithelial hyperplasia is a common proliferative change seen in fibrocystic disease, characterized by increased number of epithelial cells in the ducts and lobules. Apocrine metaplasia, choice A, is another common change in fibrocystic disease but is not specific to morphology. Proliferation of ductules, choice B, is not a characteristic feature of fibrocystic disease. Giant cells, choice D, are not typically associated with fibrocystic changes.
What is the cause of menopause?
- A. Reduced levels of gonadotropic hormones secreted from the anterior pituitary gland
- B. Reduced responsiveness of the follicles to the stimulatory effects of gonadotropic hormones
- C. Reduced rate of secretion of progesterone from the corpus luteum
- D. Reduced numbers of follicles available in the ovary for stimulation by gonadotropic hormones
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because menopause occurs when the ovaries run out of follicles, which are needed for ovulation and hormone production. This leads to reduced estrogen levels and cessation of menstrual cycles. Choices A and B focus on hormone levels and follicle responsiveness, not the actual follicle count. Choice C is incorrect as progesterone is mainly produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, not the primary cause of menopause.
When assessing a client with cervical cancer who had a total abdominal hysterectomy yesterday, you obtain the following data. Which information has the most immediate implications for planning the client's care?
- A. Fine crackles are audible at the lung bases.
- B. Client's right calf is swollen and tender.
- C. Client is using the PCA every 15 minutes.
- D. Urine in the collection bag is amber and clear.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Swelling and tenderness in the calf suggest deep vein thrombosis, a serious complication requiring immediate attention.
The process when the ovarian follicle ruptures and releases an ovum is called ___________.
- A. Menopause
- B. ovulation
- C. Implantation
- D. Breast
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ovulation. Ovulation is the process where the ovarian follicle ruptures and releases an ovum. This occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle. Menopause (A) is the cessation of menstrual periods, not the release of an ovum. Implantation (C) is the attachment of a fertilized egg to the uterine wall, not the release of an ovum. Breast (D) is not related to the process of ovulation.