Nokea
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a primiparous client who asks about weaning her neonate?
- A. Wait until you have breast-fed for at least 4 months.
- B. Eliminate the baby's favorite feeding times first.
- C. Plan to omit the daytime feedings last.
- D. Gradually eliminate one feeding at a time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gradual weaning by eliminating one feeding at a time minimizes discomfort and distress for both mother and baby.
You may also like to solve these questions
The physician orders 1000 mL of Ringer's Lactate intravenously over an 8-hour period for a 29-year-old primigravid client at 16 weeks' gestation with hyperemesis. The drip factor is 12 gtts/mL. The nurse should administer the IV infusion at how many drops per minute?
- A. 25 gtts/minute.
- B. 30 gtts/minute.
- C. 35 gtts/minute.
- D. 40 gtts/minute.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Calculation: (1000 mL * 12 gtts/mL) / (8 hours * 60 minutes) = 25 gtts/minute.
A client is considering a vasectomy. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
- A. A vasectomy is reversible in all cases.
- B. A vasectomy requires a follow-up sperm count to confirm sterility.
- C. A vasectomy prevents testosterone production.
- D. A vasectomy is effective immediately after the procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A vasectomy requires a follow-up sperm count to confirm sterility, as sperm may remain in the vas deferens initially. Reversal is not always successful, testosterone production is unaffected, and it is not effective immediately.
A nurse is counseling a client about the use of spermicides. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should use spermicide with a condom for better protection.
- B. Spermicide should be applied 10-30 minutes before intercourse.
- C. Spermicide is effective for up to 24 hours after application.
- D. Spermicide may cause vaginal irritation in some users.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spermicide is effective for about 1 hour after application, not 24 hours, indicating a need for further teaching. The other statements are correct.
The physician orders intermittent fetal heart rate monitoring for a 20-year-old obese primigravid client at 40 weeks' gestation who is admitted to the birthing center in the first stage of labor. The nurse should monitor the client's fetal heart rate pattern at which of the following intervals?
- A. Every 15 minutes during the latent phase.
- B. Every 30 minutes during the active phase.
- C. Every 60 minutes during the initial phase.
- D. Every 2 hours during the transition phase.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a low-risk primigravid client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, intermittent fetal heart rate monitoring is typically performed every 30 minutes to ensure fetal well-being, as per standard obstetric guidelines. More frequent monitoring (every 15 minutes) is reserved for the second stage or high-risk cases, while less frequent intervals (every 60 minutes or 2 hours) are insufficient for active labor.
A neonate delivered at 40 weeks' gestation admitted to the nursery is found to be hypoglycemic. At 4 hours of age, the neonate appears pale and his pulse oximeter is reading 75 %. The nurse should:
- A. Increase the I.V. rate.
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen.
- C. Record the finding on the chart and repeat the reading in 30 minutes.
- D. Wrap the neonate to increase body temperature.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 75% indicates hypoxemia, and providing supplemental oxygen is the priority.