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A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Prostephobia
- B. Tireibus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Tathyramda
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. Gentamicin is an antibiotic known to potentially cause kidney damage, leading to impaired kidney function and decreased urine output. Therefore, monitoring for polyuria (excessive urine output) is crucial to assess the client's renal function. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not known side effects or complications associated with gentamicin use. Prostephobia is not a medical term, and Tireibus and Tathyramda are not relevant to gentamicin therapy. The nurse should focus on monitoring the client for signs of kidney damage, such as changes in urine output, in this scenario.
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A client who has active tuberculosis and is taking rifampin reports that his urine and sweat have developed a red tinge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client's liver function test results.
- B. Instruct the client to increase his fluid intake.
- C. Document this as an expected finding.
- D. Prepare the client for dialysis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Document this as an expected finding. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids like urine and sweat. This is a common side effect and does not indicate any serious issues. The nurse should document this finding to track the client's response to the medication and educate the client about it.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Checking liver function test results is not necessary for the red discoloration caused by rifampin.
B: Increasing fluid intake will not resolve the red tinge as it is a known side effect of rifampin.
D: Dialysis is not indicated for the harmless discoloration caused by rifampin.
A nurse is consulting a formulary about a client's new prescription for raloxifene. The nurse should identify that this medication is used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis by increasing bone density. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that mimics estrogen's effects on bone without affecting other tissues like the uterus. This helps to reduce the risk of fractures in postmenopausal women. Choices B, C, D, E, F, and G are incorrect because raloxifene is not indicated for hypothyroidism, urinary tract infections, or any other conditions besides osteoporosis.
A nurse is reviewing the list of current medications for a client who is to start a prescription for carbamazepine. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications interacts with carbamazepine?
- A. Nicotine transdermal system
- B. Diphenhydramine
- C. Estrogen-progestin combination
- D. Beclomethasone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Estrogen-progestin combination. Carbamazepine can decrease the effectiveness of estrogen-containing medications, including estrogen-progestin combinations, by increasing their metabolism. This can lead to reduced contraceptive efficacy and breakthrough bleeding.
Nicotine transdermal system (choice A) does not have a significant interaction with carbamazepine. Diphenhydramine (choice B) is an antihistamine and does not interact with carbamazepine. Beclomethasone (choice D) is a corticosteroid and does not have a significant interaction with carbamazepine.
A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (SATA)
- A. Polypharmacy
- B. Increased rate of absorption
- C. Decreased percentage of body fat
- D. Multiple health problems
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: To determine risk factors for adverse drug reactions in older adults, consider the following:
A: Polypharmacy increases the likelihood of drug interactions and adverse effects.
C: Decreased body fat can affect drug distribution, leading to higher drug concentrations.
D: Multiple health problems may require multiple medications, increasing the risk of adverse reactions.
E: Age-related changes in liver and kidney function can affect drug metabolism and excretion.
Other choices are incorrect because increased rate of absorption does not necessarily increase risk and choices F and G were not provided.
A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Red man syndrome
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Phenytoin can cause hypotension as an adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. The drug can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to symptoms such as dizziness and lightheadedness. This adverse effect is important for the nurse to recognize as it can potentially lead to complications such as falls in the client.
A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
B: Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of phenytoin.
C: Red man syndrome is associated with vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Summary: Phenytoin is more likely to cause hypotension as an adverse effect, rather than hypoglycemia, bradycardia, or red man syndrome.