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Which of the following should the nurse use as a basis for explaining the etiology of Alzheimer's disease to the family of a client with this disease?
- A. It is a secondary dementia indicated by loss of recent memory and disorientation to time and place.
- B. It is a primary dementia that is incurable, irreversible, and fatal. It is caused by the presence of a beta-amyloid protein in the neurons resulting in senile plaques.
- C. It is a secondary dementia that is treatable with analysis of the diet and removal of toxic substances from the diet and environment.
- D. It is a primary dementia characterized by stepwise decreases in cognitive abilities. It is irreversible but treatable with antihypertensive medications.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia that is characterized by the presence of beta-amyloid protein in neurons leading to the formation of senile plaques. This explanation is accurate as it describes the key pathological process underlying Alzheimer's disease.
Choice A is incorrect because Alzheimer's disease is a primary dementia, not a secondary dementia. Choice C is incorrect because the etiology of Alzheimer's disease is not related to diet or toxic substances, so it is not treatable in that way. Choice D is incorrect because while Alzheimer's disease is irreversible, it is not treatable with antihypertensive medications as these medications are not effective in managing the disease process of Alzheimer's.
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A mother discusses her concerns about genetic transmission of schizophrenia with the nurse saying, 'My son is a fraternal twin. He has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Will my other son develop schizophrenia, too?' The response that is both sensitive and shows understanding of the genetic component is:
- A. You poor woman! I wish I could tell you he will be free of the disorder.'
- B. Studies show that 50% of twins develop schizophrenia when it is present in the other twin.'
- C. No one can say what will happen, so we will hope for the best for you and your sons.'
- D. In fraternal twins, the chance of the other twin developing the disorder is quite small.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and sensitive response. Fraternal twins do not share the exact genetic makeup, so the chance of the other twin developing schizophrenia is lower compared to identical twins. This response acknowledges the genetic component of schizophrenia while also offering reassurance based on the understanding of genetic transmission.
Choices A and C are incorrect because they do not provide accurate information about the genetic risk of schizophrenia in fraternal twins and may not offer the mother a clear understanding of the situation. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a generalized statistic for identical twins, not fraternal twins, which could lead to unnecessary anxiety for the mother.
Which of the following can potentially be diagnostic at the clinic?
- A. The Ages & Stages questionnaire
- B. The Vanderbilt Rating Scale
- C. The MCHAT R/F
- D. The Goodenough Draw a Man test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The MCHAT-R/F (Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers, Revised with Follow-up) is a validated diagnostic screening tool for autism that can be used in a clinic setting, unlike the others which are more general developmental or cognitive assessments.
A 79-year-old white male tells a nurse, 'I have felt very sad lately. I do not have much to live for. My family and friends are all dead, and my own health is failing.' The nurse should analyze this comment as
- A. normal pessimism of the elderly.
- B. evidence of risks for suicide.
- C. a call for sympathy.
- D. normal grieving.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: evidence of risks for suicide. The elderly man's statement indicates feelings of hopelessness, loneliness, and lack of purpose, which are common risk factors for suicide in older adults. The nurse should assess further for suicidal ideation and intervene accordingly.
Choice A is incorrect because the statement goes beyond normal pessimism by expressing thoughts of not having much to live for. Choice C is incorrect as the statement is more indicative of distress rather than a mere call for sympathy. Choice D is incorrect as normal grieving typically involves processing emotions related to a specific loss, whereas the man's statement reflects a broader sense of despair.
A worker is characterized by her co-workers as 'painfully shy' and lacking in self-confidence. Her co-workers say she stays in her cubicle all day, never coming out for breaks or lunch. One day after falling on the ice in the parking lot, she goes to the nurse's office, where she apologizes for falling and mentions that she hopes the company will not fire her for being so clumsy. Which nursing approach or response would be most therapeutic?
- A. Remain professional and a bit detached so as not to arouse suspiciousness on her part.
- B. Reassure her that many others have fallen at work and not ever been criticized or fired.
- C. Acknowledge her concerns in a matter-of-fact manner and provide first aid as needed.
- D. Explain that an incident report about her fall will go to a manager who will contact her.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it focuses on reassurance and empathy, which are important in therapeutic communication. By reassuring the worker that others have fallen without facing negative consequences, the nurse is validating her feelings and reducing her anxiety. This approach helps build trust and rapport, essential for effective communication and support.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the worker's emotional needs or provide the reassurance she requires. Option A suggests remaining detached, which may come across as uncaring. Option C focuses solely on providing first aid and does not acknowledge the worker's concerns. Option D introduces the fear of potential consequences without providing any reassurance or emotional support, which could increase the worker's anxiety.
A nurse is caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa. What is a priority assessment for this patient?
- A. Electrolyte imbalances and cardiac function.
- B. Body image issues and mental health status.
- C. Nutritional status and hydration levels.
- D. Weight changes and exercise patterns.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalances and cardiac function. This is because patients with bulimia nervosa often engage in purging behaviors which can lead to electrolyte imbalances and cardiac complications. Assessing electrolyte levels and cardiac function is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while body image and mental health are important considerations, they are not the priority assessment in this case. Choice C is also incorrect as nutritional status and hydration levels can be affected, but not as immediately life-threatening as electrolyte imbalances and cardiac issues. Choice D is incorrect as weight changes and exercise patterns may be important, but they are not the priority assessment for a patient with bulimia nervosa.