NCLEX RN Exam Prep Related

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Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

  • A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
  • B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
  • C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
  • D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.