Nokea
Which of the following statements for measles is NOT true?
- A. It is a childhood infection manifested with exanthema
- B. A characteristic clinical signs are the spots of Koplik
- C. Finding negris bodies is important for diagnosis
- D. Prophylaxis is done via live attenuated vaccine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.
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Your patient is a 22-year-old man. The patient reports that two weeks after unprotected sexual contact, a small ulcer appeared on its penis. The local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Dark field microscopic examination of the ulcer secretions was performed. The test reveals presence of motile, curved spirochete. The most common causative agent of the disease is:
- A. Chlamydia trachoma's
- B. Treponema pallidum
- C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- D. Herpes simplex virus, type 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. The scenario describes symptoms of primary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum. The presence of a painless ulcer (chancre) and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are characteristic of syphilis. Dark field microscopic examination showing motile, curved spirochetes is highly specific for Treponema pallidum.
Incorrect explanations:
A: Chlamydia trachomatis typically causes urethritis or cervicitis, not painless ulcers.
C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, which presents with purulent discharge, not painless ulcers.
D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes, leading to painful ulcers and vesicles, not painless ulcers seen in syphilis.
Artificial active immunity occurs after a vaccination: injecting or taking antigens by mouth. Takes time for T and B cells to be activated but gives relatively long lasting:
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Both answers can be correct depending on the given situation
- D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Vaccination introduces antigens to stimulate immune response.
2. T and B cells are activated to produce memory cells for long-lasting protection.
3. Active immunity develops over time post-vaccination.
4. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the process and outcomes.
5. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the process of active immunity.
6. Choice C is incorrect as the process of active immunity is consistent regardless of the situation.
7. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the mechanism and characteristics of artificial active immunity.
Which of the following viruses belong to family Arenaviridae?
- A. Lassa virus
- B. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus
- C. Rabies virus
- D. Epstein-Barr virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Arenaviridae family includes viruses with a segmented genome.
2. Lassa virus has a segmented genome, placing it in the Arenaviridae family.
3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family, not Arenaviridae.
4. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family, not Arenaviridae.
5. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family, not Arenaviridae.
Summary:
A: Lassa virus is correct because it has a segmented genome, characteristic of Arenaviridae.
B, C, D: Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus, Rabies virus, and Epstein-Barr virus belong to different virus families, not Arenaviridae.
Media that contain complex organic substances such as blood for the growth of specific bacteria are referred to as:
- A. enriched media
- B. general-purpose media
- C. reducing media
- D. differential media
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: enriched media. Enriched media contain additional nutrients such as blood to support the growth of fastidious bacteria. This allows for the cultivation of a wider range of microorganisms. General-purpose media (B) contain basic nutrients for a variety of bacteria. Reducing media (C) create anaerobic conditions, not necessarily rich in organic substances. Differential media (D) contain indicators to distinguish between different types of microorganisms, not necessarily enriched with organic substances.
On the 8th day since the patient was inoculated with antitetanic serum because of dirty wound of his foot he has developed rising temperature up to 380% , pains in the joints, rash and itch. The blood tests revealed leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Allergic reaction of what type has developed in this case?
- A. Anaphylactic
- B. Cytotoxic
- C. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
- D. Immunocomplex
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.