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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning gestational diabetes?
- A. Most commonly developed in the first trimester of pregnancy
- B. Affects 8% of pregnant women
- C. Maternal blood glucose levels will return to normal shortly after birth
- D. There is a high risk of developing type 2 diabetes by the mother within 20 years
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational diabetes hits late second or third trimester, not first insulin resistance peaks then, a pregnancy twist. Eight percent's close, glucose norms post-birth, type 2 risk looms 20 years fits. Nurses catch this timing, a chronic precursor's true window.
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A nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client who was recently diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following should be included in the client and family teaching?
- A. Low sodium diet
- B. Weekly weights
- C. Symptoms to report to the provider
- D. Fluid restriction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heart failure management hinges on education to prevent exacerbations. A low sodium diet reduces fluid retention, easing cardiac workload crucial teaching for clients and families to grasp, as salt drives edema and hypertension, common pitfalls in heart failure. Weekly weights track fluid shifts daily is ideal, but weekly still aids while reporting symptoms like dyspnea flags worsening. Medication teaching ensures adherence, and fluid restriction may apply, but sodium's broader impact makes it foundational. Focusing on diet empowers lifestyle change, tackling a root cause over monitoring or restrictions alone, aligning with nursing's role in empowering self-care to stabilize this chronic condition long-term.
In patients who are awake during craniotomy, appropriate statements include:
- A. For a temporal lesion, neurosurgeons are likely to require the sitting position.
- B. A tracheal tube is likely to be used.
- C. A urinary catheter is likely to be inserted.
- D. Intraoperative seizures are likely to occur during cortical mapping.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Awake craniotomy allows functional mapping and patient cooperation. The sitting position is rare due to air embolism risks and is not specific to temporal lesions; supine or lateral positions are standard. A tracheal tube is avoided to maintain airway control via less invasive means (e.g., nasal cannula), as patients must remain responsive. A urinary catheter is routine for longer procedures to manage fluid balance and patient comfort, given immobility and duration. Patient anxiety is common but manageable, not an absolute contraindication. Seizures can occur during cortical mapping due to electrical stimulation, but likely' overstates frequency; they're a risk, not a certainty. The urinary catheter's inclusion reflects practical perioperative care, ensuring monitoring and comfort without interrupting the procedure's focus on brain function preservation.
A 50 year old Chinese man is suspected to have metabolic syndrome. According to the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) 2006 definition, which ONE of the following diagnostic criteria is mandatory to make a diagnosis in this gentleman?
- A. Triglycerides of 1.7 mmol/L
- B. Waist circumference of 90 cm
- C. HDL-cholesterol of <1.03 mmol/L
- D. Blood pressure of 130/85 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IDF 2006 metabolic syndrome hinges on waist 90 cm for Asian men, mandatory, then two more like lipids, BP, or glucose. Others count, but girth's the chronic core nurses measure first.
In Europe and the USA, drugs licensed for use in intrathecal drug delivery systems include:
- A. Diamorphine.
- B. Methadone.
- C. Morphine.
- D. Ziconotide.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intrathecal drug delivery systems (IDDS) use specific licensed drugs in Europe and the USA. Morphine is widely approved for its efficacy in cancer and chronic pain, binding spinal opioid receptors with a strong evidence base. Ziconotide, a non-opioid, is also licensed, targeting calcium channels for refractory cases. Diamorphine (heroin) isn't licensed intrathecally; it's used epidurally or systemically in some regions (e.g., UK palliative care) but lacks IDDS approval. Methadone's long half-life and oral efficacy preclude intrathecal use; it's not licensed. Ketamine has experimental use but no formal approval. Morphine's prominence stems from its pharmacokinetic suitability high potency and spinal receptor affinity making it a cornerstone of IDDS therapy alongside ziconotide.
When using induced hypotension during orthognathic surgery:
- A. Mean arterial blood pressure may be reduced to 30% of normal in patients of ASA grade I.
- B. The stress response to surgery is attenuated.
- C. Drugs that cause relative bradycardia are useful adjuncts.
- D. The desired effects of clonidine are mediated by αâ‚-adrenoceptors.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Induced hypotension in orthognathic surgery reduces bleeding, enhancing visibility. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) drops to 50-65 mmHg (not 30% of normal, ~20-25 mmHg, which risks ischemia), safe in ASA I patients with monitoring. Stress response attenuation occurs with deep anaesthesia, not hypotension alone. Bradycardia-inducing drugs (e.g., β-blockers, remifentanil) stabilize haemodynamics, aiding controlled hypotension by lowering cardiac output safely. Clonidine, an α₂-agonist (not αâ‚), reduces sympathetic outflow, supporting hypotension and sedation. Invasive monitoring mitigates pressure injury risk. Bradycardia's role enhances technique precision, minimizing transfusion needs while maintaining perfusion in healthy patients.