Nokea
Which of the following structures is responsible for producing hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor, essential for the digestion of proteins and absorption of vitamin B12, respectively?
- A. Liver
- B. Stomach
- C. Pancreas
- D. Small intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The stomach is responsible for producing hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor. Hydrochloric acid helps in the breakdown of proteins during digestion, while intrinsic factor aids in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. These two components are crucial for the proper functioning of the digestive system, particularly in breaking down food and absorbing essential nutrients. The liver is involved in bile production, the pancreas in the production of digestive enzymes, and the small intestine in nutrient absorption, but the specific functions related to hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor are primarily attributed to the stomach.
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Nurse Reese is preparing the patient assignment t for the day and needs to assign patients to a midwife and nursing assistant. Which patient should the nurse assign to the midwife because of patient needs that cannot be met by the nursing assistant? A patient requiring________.
- A. dressing change of post caesarian Surgery
- B. Collecting of urine specimen for urinalysis testing
- C. performing range-of-motion exercises twice a day
- D. taking of vital signs measurement every hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient requiring a dressing change of post-caesarian surgery should be assigned to the midwife because this task involves specialized knowledge and skills related to wound care and post-operative care. Performing a dressing change for a post-caesarian surgery patient requires expertise to ensure proper hygiene, wound healing, and prevention of post-operative complications. This task goes beyond the scope of practice for a nursing assistant and should be done by a healthcare professional with higher qualifications and training, such as a midwife.
Which of the following clinical findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of pneumonia?
- A. Inspiratory crackles and dullness to percussion
- B. Hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain
- C. Clubbing of the fingers and cyanosis
- D. Decreased breath sounds and tracheal deviation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical findings of inspiratory crackles (also known as rales) and dullness to percussion are most consistent with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles are abnormal lung sounds heard on auscultation and are typically due to the presence of fluid or mucus in the alveoli. Dullness to percussion can indicate consolidation of lung tissue, which is a common finding in pneumonia where the alveolar spaces are filled with inflammatory exudate. These findings suggest localized lung pathology and are commonly observed in patients with pneumonia. Hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain (Choice B) are more suggestive of pulmonary embolism or pleurisy. Clubbing of the fingers and cyanosis (Choice C) are signs of chronic hypoxemia and are not specific to pneumonia. Decreased breath sounds and tracheal deviation (Choice D) are more indicative of conditions such as a pneumoth
A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for the management of acute pain. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics are known to suppress the respiratory centers in the brain, leading to respiratory depression as a side effect. This adverse effect is particularly dangerous and potentially life-threatening, especially in patients who are opioid-naive or when high doses are administered. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the patient's respiratory rate, depth, and effort while on opioid analgesic therapy to detect early signs of respiratory depression and intervene promptly to prevent complications. Hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not commonly associated with opioid analgesics.
Patient Josephine was referred to the physician, routine blood examinations were taken. After reviewing the serum electrolyte. levels an order of isotonic intravenous (IV) infusion was prescribed. Which IV solution should the nurse prepare?
- A. 5 percent dextrose in water
- B. 0.45 percent sodium chloride solution
- C. 10 percent dextrose in water
- D. 3 percent sodium chloride solution
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The order for isotonic intravenous (IV) infusion indicates that the IV solution should have an osmolarity similar to that of blood serum, which is approximately 0.9 percent sodium chloride solution (normal saline). In the given choices, the closest option to isotonic solution is the 0.45 percent sodium chloride solution. This solution is hypotonic compared to blood serum, making it a suitable choice for isotonic IV infusion to prevent fluid shifts and maintain electrolyte balance in the patient. The other options, such as 5 percent dextrose in water (hypotonic), 10 percent dextrose in water (hypertonic), and 3 percent sodium chloride solution (hypertonic), do not match the requirement for an isotonic IV solution in this case.
Amitriptyline, an antidepressant is the drug of choice in treating Bulimia. What is a COMMON side effect of this drug?
- A. Anticholinergic effects
- B. Cholinergic effects
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Diarrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, being a tricyclic antidepressant, commonly causes anticholinergic side effects. These effects include dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, urinary retention, and confusion. Anticholinergic effects are due to the drug's inhibition of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which can lead to the symptoms mentioned above. These side effects can be bothersome for patients taking amitriptyline, but they are generally manageable and often improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. In the case of bulimia treatment, the benefits of using amitriptyline to address the underlying psychological issues often outweigh the side effects.