Nokea
Which of the following structures is responsible for the mechanical and chemical digestion of food, as well as the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream?
- A. Liver
- B. Stomach
- C. Pancreas
- D. Large intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The stomach is the organ responsible for the mechanical and chemical digestion of food. When food enters the stomach, it is mixed with stomach acid and enzymes to break down the food into smaller particles. This process helps prepare the food for further digestion and absorption of nutrients. The stomach also plays a key role in the absorption of some nutrients, such as certain vitamins and minerals. Additionally, the stomach's muscular contractions help mix the food with digestive enzymes and propel the partially digested food into the small intestine for further processing and absorption. The liver, pancreas, and large intestine have vital functions in the digestive system, but the stomach is the primary organ responsible for the initial digestion and absorption of nutrients.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is preparing to assist with a bone marrow biopsy procedure for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient comfort during the procedure?
- A. Administering intravenous sedation to the patient before the biopsy
- B. Providing distraction techniques such as music or relaxation exercises
- C. Applying a topical anesthetic cream to the biopsy site
- D. Allowing the patient to eat or drink up to one hour before the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prioritizing the application of a topical anesthetic cream to the biopsy site is essential to ensure patient comfort during the bone marrow biopsy procedure. This will help numb the area where the biopsy needle will be inserted, reducing the pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Administering intravenous sedation may not always be needed for a bone marrow biopsy and should be decided by the healthcare provider based on the patient's individual needs. Providing distraction techniques such as music or relaxation exercises can be helpful, but they may not be as effective at reducing the physical discomfort caused by the procedure. Allowing the patient to eat or drink up to one hour before the procedure is important for other reasons, such as preventing potential complications during sedation or anesthesia, but it is not directly related to ensuring comfort during the biopsy itself.
What is the recommended position for a conscious patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. High-Fowler's position
- B. Supine position with legs elevated
- C. Left lateral recumbent position
- D. Semi-Fowler's position
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended position for a conscious patient experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation is the High-Fowler's position. This position involves the patient sitting upright or almost upright at about a 90-degree angle. The High-Fowler's position helps improve ventilation by expanding the lungs and maximizing airflow in and out of the airways. It also reduces the work of breathing in patients with asthma by allowing gravity to assist in moving air in and out of the lungs more easily. Additionally, this position can help alleviate shortness of breath and improve oxygenation in patients experiencing an asthma exacerbation.
A client has undergone a lymph node biopsy. The nurse anticipates that the report will reveal which result if the client has Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
- A. Reed-Sternberg cells
- B. Philadelphia chromosome
- C. Epstein-barr virus
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal lymphocytes that are characteristic of Hodgkin's Lymphoma. They are typically found in the affected lymph nodes of individuals with Hodgkin's Lymphoma when examined under a microscope. Identifying Reed-Sternberg cells in a lymph node biopsy is a key diagnostic feature of Hodgkin's Lymphoma. This distinguishes Hodgkin's Lymphoma from other types of lymphomas that do not have Reed-Sternberg cells.
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage heart failure experiences paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
- A. Administer diuretic medications to reduce fluid overload.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.
- C. Encourage the patient to sleep in a reclined position to minimize dyspnea.
- D. Refer the patient to a sleep specialist for evaluation and treatment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics is the most appropriate intervention for managing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with end-stage heart failure. By keeping the head of the bed elevated, gravity helps reduce the pooling of fluid in the lungs, making it easier for the patient to breathe and reducing dyspnea. This strategy can help improve oxygenation and decrease the sensation of breathlessness, providing relief for the patient. Administering diuretic medications (Option A) can also be beneficial to reduce fluid overload, although positioning remains a key intervention. Encouraging the patient to sleep in a reclined position (Option C) can help alleviate symptoms, but specifically elevating the head of the bed is a more targeted approach. Referring the patient to a sleep specialist (Option D) may not be necessary at this time, as the primary concern is managing the acute symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
- B. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- C. Ischemic stroke
- D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient is presenting with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech, which are classic symptoms of a stroke. The involvement of the right middle cerebral artery territory on imaging suggests an acute infarction, confirming an ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs due to a blockage or obstruction within a blood vessel supplying blood to the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients reaching brain tissue. This results in neurological deficits corresponding to the affected area of the brain. In contrast, a transient ischemic attack (TIA) would present with similar symptoms but resolve within 24 hours without evidence of acute infarction on imaging. Intracerebral hemorrhage and subarachnoid hemorrhage involve bleeding into the brain tissue or the space surrounding the brain, respectively, resulting in different clinical presentations.