Nokea
Which of the following teaching strategies would the nurse plan for a client with an anal fissure?
- A. Teach the client strategies to relieve diarrhea
- B. Instruct the client to not eat any fiber
- C. Teach the client how to insert a suppository
- D. Teach the client how to apply ice
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teach the client how to apply ice. Applying ice helps reduce inflammation and pain associated with anal fissures. It constricts blood vessels, decreases blood flow, and numbs the area, promoting healing.
A: Teaching strategies to relieve diarrhea is not directly related to managing anal fissures.
B: Instructing the client to not eat any fiber is incorrect because fiber helps soften stools and prevent constipation, which can worsen anal fissures.
C: Teaching the client how to insert a suppository may not be necessary for managing anal fissures unless prescribed by a healthcare provider for specific reasons.
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Histamine stimulates the ______ cells to release ______.
- A. parietal; intrinsic factor
- B. chief; pepsinogen
- C. parietal; HCl
- D. mucous neck; mucus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Histamine stimulates the parietal cells in the stomach lining to release hydrochloric acid (HCl). This process plays a crucial role in the digestion of food. Parietal cells are responsible for producing stomach acid, which helps break down food and kill bacteria. Choice A is incorrect because intrinsic factor is not released by parietal cells in response to histamine. Choice B is incorrect because pepsinogen is released by chief cells, not parietal cells. Choice D is incorrect because mucous neck cells secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining, but they are not directly stimulated by histamine to release mucus.
These contractions occur 3 to 4 times a day and involve large parts of the transverse and descending colon. These contractions are called
- A. mass movements.
- B. haustral churning.
- C. the defecation reflex.
- D. teniae coli waves.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: mass movements. Mass movements are strong contractions that occur 3 to 4 times a day, moving large amounts of fecal material through the colon. This process involves the transverse and descending colon, which aligns with the description provided in the question. Mass movements help propel waste towards the rectum for elimination.
Choice B, haustral churning, refers to the mixing and propelling actions that occur in the haustra of the colon, not involving large parts of the transverse and descending colon. Choice C, the defecation reflex, is the process that triggers the urge to defecate, not specific contractions involving the colon. Choice D, teniae coli waves, are contractions of the longitudinal muscles of the colon that create the haustra, not the strong propulsive contractions described in the question.
Chemical digestion of starch foods begins in the:
- A. mouth
- B. stomach
- C. small intestine
- D. large intestine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme in saliva, initiates the breakdown of starch into maltose in the mouth. This process marks the beginning of chemical digestion of starch foods. In contrast, the stomach primarily digests proteins, the small intestine further breaks down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, while the large intestine absorbs water and minerals. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the initial site of starch digestion.
To evaluate the effect of nutritional interventions for a patient with protein-calorie malnutrition, what is the best indicator for the nurse to use?
- A. Height and weight
- B. Weight in relation to ideal body weight
- C. Body mass index (BMI)
- D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold are commonly used indicators to assess muscle and fat reserves in individuals with protein-calorie malnutrition. Mid-upper arm circumference reflects muscle mass, while triceps skinfold measures body fat. These indicators provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's nutritional status, making them the best choice for evaluating the effectiveness of nutritional interventions.
A: Height and weight do not provide a specific assessment of muscle and fat reserves and may not accurately reflect changes in nutritional status.
B: Weight in relation to ideal body weight does not differentiate between muscle and fat mass, making it less specific for assessing protein-calorie malnutrition.
C: BMI is a general indicator of weight status and does not specifically measure muscle and fat reserves, making it less suitable for evaluating nutritional interventions in patients with protein-calorie malnutrition.
After eating, a patient with an inflamed gallbladder experiences pain caused by contraction of the gallbladder. What is the mechanism responsible for this action?
- A. Production of bile by the liver
- B. Production of secretin by the duodenum
- C. Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum
- D. Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Production of cholecystokinin by the duodenum. Cholecystokinin (CCK) is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fatty acids and amino acids. It stimulates the gallbladder to contract, causing the release of bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. This is directly related to the patient's symptoms of gallbladder pain after eating, as the contraction of the gallbladder is triggered by CCK.
A: Production of bile by the liver is not the mechanism responsible for the gallbladder contraction.
B: Production of secretin by the duodenum is involved in regulating the pH of the duodenum, not gallbladder contraction.
C: Release of gastrin from the stomach antrum is related to stomach acid secretion, not gallbladder contraction.
In summary, the correct answer, D, is directly related to the mechanism responsible for gallbladder pain after eating,