LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet

LPN Fundamentals of Nursing Quizlet Related

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Which of the following therapies is based on 'learning theory'?

  • A. Behaviour therapy
  • B. Psychoanalytic
  • C. Milieu Therapy
  • D. Cognitive therapy
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Learning theory underpins therapies that modify behavior through principles like conditioning. Behaviour therapy (choice A) directly applies learning theory, using techniques such as operant conditioning (rewards/punishments) and classical conditioning (stimulus-response pairing) to address maladaptive behaviors, like phobias or addiction. Psychoanalytic therapy (choice B) focuses on unconscious conflicts and past experiences, rooted in Freudian theory, not learning principles. Milieu therapy (choice C) emphasizes a therapeutic environment to foster social learning, but it's not strictly based on learning theory's conditioning mechanisms. Cognitive therapy (choice D) targets thought patterns to change behavior, incorporating some learning elements but primarily stemming from cognitive psychology. Choice A is correct because behaviour therapy explicitly relies on learning theory's framework, systematically altering behaviors through reinforcement or desensitization. Nurses use this in practice, such as in managing anxiety disorders with exposure techniques, highlighting its relevance in clinical settings where observable behavior change is the goal.

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The nurse is caring for a client with a history of congestive heart failure. The client's dyspnea has worsened over the past 2 hours. The nurse should:

  • A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6L per minute
  • B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
  • C. Administer Lasix (furosemide) immediately
  • D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in high Fowler's position eases dyspnea in worsening congestive heart failure by reducing preload oxygen adjustment needs orders, Lasix requires confirmation, and coughing won't help acute fluid overload. Nurses prioritize positioning, monitoring respiratory status, aiding comfort in this cardiac emergency.

The nurse is assisting in planning care for a client scheduled for insertion of a tracheostomy. Which equipment should the nurse plan to have at the bedside when the client returns from surgery?

  • A. Obturator
  • B. Oral airway
  • C. Epinephrine
  • D. Tracheostomy tube with the next larger size
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Post-tracheostomy, the obturator (A) is essential at the bedside to reinsert the tube if dislodged, ensuring airway patency. An oral airway (B) is irrelevant for tracheostomy patients. Epinephrine (C) treats allergic reactions, not routine needs. A larger tracheostomy tube (D) isn't standard emergency equipment. A is correct. Rationale: The obturator facilitates immediate tube replacement, critical in the first 72 hours before a tract forms, preventing airway loss, a priority per surgical nursing standards over other less relevant items.

The 5-minute Apgar of a baby delivered by C-section is recorded as 9. The most likely reason for this score is:

  • A. The mottled appearance of the trunk
  • B. The presence of conjunctival hemorrhages
  • C. Cyanosis of the hands and feet
  • D. Respiratory rate of 20-28 per minute
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A 5-minute Apgar score of 9 typically reflects one point deduction, often for color, with cyanosis of the hands and feet (acrocyanosis) being common in newborns, especially post-C-section, due to initial circulation adjustments. Mottling or hemorrhages don't directly score points off, and a respiratory rate of 20-28 is low (normal is 30-60), potentially docking more points. Nurses recognize acrocyanosis as benign, resolving naturally, and use this score to reassure parents while monitoring transition, ensuring no further intervention is needed.

The nurse is providing endotracheal suctioning to a client who is mechanically ventilated, when the client becomes restless and tachycardic. Which action should the nurse take?

  • A. Notify the health care provider as soon as possible.
  • B. Contact the respiratory department to suction the client.
  • C. Hyperoxygenate and hyperventilate the client with an Ambu bag and resuction.
  • D. Monitor vital signs and discontinue attempts at suctioning until the client is stabilized.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness and tachycardia during suctioning suggest hypoxia or distress; discontinuing suctioning and monitoring vital signs (D) is the priority to stabilize the client. Notifying the provider (A) or respiratory (B) delays immediate action. Hyperoxygenating and resuctioning (C) risks worsening hypoxia. D is correct. Rationale: Stopping suctioning halts oxygen depletion, allowing recovery, while monitoring guides further intervention, a standard response per airway management protocols. This prevents complications like arrhythmias or desaturation, prioritizing patient safety over premature escalation or repeated procedures in an unstable state.

A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has fluid volume excess. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

  • A. Hypotension
  • B. Bradycardia
  • C. Crackles in the lungs
  • D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is a characteristic finding in clients with fluid volume excess. The crackling sound occurs due to the presence of excess fluid in the lungs, impairing normal ventilation and gas exchange. Monitoring for crackles is essential for early detection and management of fluid overload in clients.

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