Nokea
Which of the following v agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is * diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
- A. Amantadine
- B. Valacyclovir
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Zanamivir
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir.
1. Valacyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infections, including genital herpes.
2. It works by stopping the virus from multiplying in the body.
3. Amantadine (A) is used for influenza A virus, not herpes.
4. Lamivudine (C) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes.
5. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza, not herpes.
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When the pH ________, a state of alkalosis exists.
- A. rises above 7
- B. falls below 7
- C. falls below 6.5
- D. rises above 7.45
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because alkalosis occurs when the pH rises above the normal range of 7.35-7.45. A pH above 7.45 indicates an excess of bicarbonate ions, leading to alkalosis. Choices A and B are incorrect because they do not specify the exact pH range where alkalosis occurs. Choice C is incorrect as a pH falling below 6.5 would indicate extreme acidosis, not alkalosis. Thus, D is the correct choice as it accurately reflects the pH level associated with alkalosis.
Which of the following antibiotics requires close monitoring and dosing * adjustment in a patient with liver disease?
- A. Erythromycin
- B. Gentamycin
- C. Vancomycin
- D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythromycin. Erythromycin is primarily metabolized in the liver, making it important to monitor and adjust dosage in patients with liver disease to prevent potential toxicity. Gentamycin and Penicillin G are primarily excreted by the kidneys, so liver function has less impact on their metabolism. Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys as well, so liver disease would not significantly affect its dosing requirements.
A woman with no history of UTIs who is experiencing urgency, frequency, and dysuria comes to the clinic, where a dipstick and microscopic urinalysis indicate bacteriuria. What should the nurse anticipate for this patient?
- A. Obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity
- B. No treatment with medication unless she develops fever, chills, and flank pain
- C. Empirical treatment with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for 3 days
- D. Need to have a blood specimen drawn for a complete blood count (CBC) and kidney function tests
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining a clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential to confirm the presence of a urinary tract infection (UTI) and determine the appropriate antibiotic treatment. This method helps to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and their susceptibility to antibiotics.
Choice B is incorrect as waiting for the development of severe symptoms like fever, chills, and flank pain can lead to complications and delayed treatment.
Choice C is incorrect because empirical treatment without confirming the specific bacteria and their sensitivity can lead to inappropriate antibiotic use and potential antibiotic resistance.
Choice D is incorrect as a blood specimen for CBC and kidney function tests is not the primary intervention for a suspected UTI.
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention * and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
- A. Ganciclovir
- B. Indinavir
- C. Amantadine
- D. Foscarnet
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ganciclovir. Ganciclovir is the most commonly used antiviral drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in immunocompromised patients because it is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase, thus preventing viral replication. Ganciclovir has a specific activity against CMV, making it effective for treating CMV infections.
Choice B: Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, not for CMV infections.
Choice C: Amantadine is an antiviral drug used for influenza A treatment, not for CMV infections.
Choice D: Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase but is typically used as a second-line treatment for CMV due to its side effects and toxicity compared to Ganciclovir.
A 60-year-old male has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. Six months ago, he was started on a new medication. The class of medication is most likely to cause impotence as a side effect; therefore, medication classes explored by the nurse are:
- A. Antipyretics
- B. Bronchodilators
- C. Corticosteroids
- D. Antihypertensives
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Antihypertensives. Antihypertensive medications are known to commonly cause impotence as a side effect due to their impact on blood flow and circulation. This can affect erectile function in males. Antipyretics (A) are used to reduce fever, bronchodilators (B) are used to treat respiratory conditions, and corticosteroids (C) are anti-inflammatory medications. These classes of medications are not typically associated with impotence as a side effect.