Nokea
Which of the following would predispose a client to mitral stenosis?
- A. Obesity
- B. Rheumatic fever
- C. Intravenous drug use
- D. Diabetes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral stenosis narrows the valve rheumatic fever's scarring, from streptococcal aftermath, is the prime culprit, stiffening leaflets over years. Obesity, IV drug use (tied to endocarditis), or diabetes don't directly scar valves. Nurses link rheumatic history to this, watching for dyspnea or murmurs, a legacy of infection shaping this cardiac bottleneck.
You may also like to solve these questions
Certain drug classes may cause harm in patients with symptomatic (NYHA classes II-IV) reduced ejection Heart failure (HFrEF), and thus should be avoided. If they are strongly indicated, they are to be used with caution, and with close monitoring. Such drugs include all of the following except:
- A. Thiazolidinediones (glitazones, e.g., pioglitazone, rosiglitazone)
- B. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and COX-2 inhibitors
- C. Nutritional supplements (e.g., coenzyme Q10, carnitine, taurine, and antioxidants)
- D. Non-dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HFrEF hates fluid and strain glitazones swell, NSAIDs tank kidneys, verapamil/diltiazem slow too much, trastuzumab trashes hearts. Supplements like CoQ10? Neutral or helpful, not harmful, a safe outlier. Clinicians dodge the rest, easing chronic pump woes, not this add-on.
A nurse is caring for a client with a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention?
- A. Back pain
- B. Absent peripheral pulses
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An AAA can rupture absent peripheral pulses signal dissection or clot, cutting flow, a surgical emergency needing instant action per ABCs. Back pain hints at expansion, urgent but less acute. Urine drop or nausea follows, not leads. Nurses jump on pulselessness, anticipating OR prep, a life-or-limb save in this ticking vascular bomb.
With regards to metabolic and bariatric surgery performed in East Asia, which ONE of the following is most commonly performed?
- A. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB)
- B. Adjustable gastric banding (AGB)
- C. Mini-gastric bypass
- D. Sleeve gastrectomy (SG)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In East Asia, sleeve gastrectomy (SG) has emerged as the most common bariatric surgery, surpassing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) and adjustable gastric banding (AGB), per regional data and trends. SG's popularity stems from its technical simplicity, lower complication rates, and effectiveness in weight loss and metabolic improvement, appealing in populations with lower average BMI but high visceral fat, like Asians. RYGB, while effective, is less favored due to complexity and malabsorption risks. AGB has declined globally due to less sustained outcomes. Mini-gastric bypass is rising but not dominant. SG's prominence reflects practical and cultural fit, informing physicians on regional preferences for obesity management.
During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Obtain more information about the family history.
- B. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data.
- C. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50.
- D. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Family history of colon cancer flags risk first step's digging deeper: who, when, how many cases? That shapes if it's sporadic or hereditary (e.g., Lynch syndrome), guiding screening timing. Jumping to sigmoidoscopy or fecal tests skips assessment too soon without details. Colonoscopy at 50's standard, but family history might bump it earlier (e.g., 40 or 10 years before kin's diagnosis). Nurses in oncology start here, gathering intel to tailor prevention, not rushing tools that might miss the mark without context.
Which of the following statements regarding dietary approaches to obesity treatment is TRUE?
- A. Dietary approaches are not as important as pharmacological approaches
- B. Carbohydrates have a greater satiating effect compared with proteins and fats, especially in individuals with prediabetes and obesity
- C. Intermittent fasting has consistently shown superior weight loss to very-low calorie and ketogenic diets as it is the easiest to adhere to
- D. Patient preference of dietary interventions plays a key part in adherence and ultimately weight loss and maintenance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dietary approaches to obesity vary, but patient preference significantly influences adherence and long-term weight loss success, per behavioral studies making this true. Pharmacological approaches complement, not overshadow, diet. Proteins/fats are more satiating than carbohydrates, especially in prediabetes/obesity. Intermittent fasting's superiority isn't consistent adherence varies, not universally easier than ketogenic or very-low calorie diets. Preference drives sustainability, key for physicians tailoring chronic obesity interventions.