Nokea
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
- A. Tetanic contractions
- B. Neck vein distention
- C. Weight loss
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
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A client with type 1 DM is experiencing signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Flushed skin
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client experiencing hypoglycemia, tachycardia is a common symptom. This occurs due to the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, which stimulates the heart to beat faster. Polyuria, the increased production of urine, flushed skin, and dry mouth are not typical symptoms of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Flushed skin and dry mouth are not direct physiological responses to low blood sugar levels.
Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polydipsia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Nocturia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic medication. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus is taking oral antidiabetic medication, the nurse should closely monitor for hypoglycemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood sugar levels drop below normal range, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of oral antidiabetic medications. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is the opposite of the desired effect of antidiabetic medications, which aim to lower blood sugar levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not directly associated with oral antidiabetic medications; it refers to a slow heart rate.
A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:
- A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
- B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
- C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
- D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.
A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
- A. Treat the underlying cause of the disease
- B. Reduce thyroid hormone production
- C. Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors
- D. Increase energy levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.