Nokea
Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
- A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
- B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
- C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
- D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.
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After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
A client with DM is scheduled to have surgery. The nurse should plan to:
- A. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
- B. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.
- C. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
- D. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. This is essential to ensure that the client's blood glucose levels remain within the target range and to prevent complications such as hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving a regular diet as ordered, holding insulin on the morning of surgery, or stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels, posing risks to the client's safety during the surgical procedure.
Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity?
- A. The nurse ensures that the patient is treated with respect and that their personal beliefs and values are considered in their care.
- B. The nurse maintains the patient's dignity by ensuring privacy during personal care activities.
- C. The nurse ensures that the patient's personal information is kept private and only shared with those directly involved in their care.
- D. The nurse ensures that the patient is involved in decisions about their care and that their preferences are respected.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity goes beyond just privacy during personal care activities. It involves treating the patient with respect, considering their personal beliefs and values in their care. While privacy is important for dignity, respecting personal beliefs and values is equally crucial. Choice B focuses solely on privacy, overlooking the broader aspects of dignity maintenance. Choices C and D, although important in patient care, do not fully capture the comprehensive approach needed for maintaining patient dignity as described in choice A.
A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. U waves
- B. Absent P waves
- C. Elevated T waves
- D. Elevated ST segment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.
A client is admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase, the priority nursing action is to prepare to:
- A. Administer regular insulin intravenously
- B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
- C. Correct the acidosis
- D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin intravenously is the priority nursing action in the acute phase of DKA. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting cellular uptake of glucose and inhibiting ketone production. Administering dextrose would be counterproductive as it can worsen hyperglycemia. Correcting acidosis is important but usually follows insulin administration. Applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action in the acute management of DKA.