Nokea
Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
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Which of the following foods might a client with hypercholesterolemia need to decrease intake of?
- A. broiled catfish
- B. hamburgers
- C. wheat bread
- D. fresh apples
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with hypercholesterolemia should decrease their intake of foods high in cholesterol. Hamburgers, being red meat, have a high cholesterol content, hence should be decreased in the diet. Broiled catfish, wheat bread, and fresh apples are not high in cholesterol, so there is no need to decrease their intake. Broiled catfish is a lean source of protein, wheat bread is a complex carbohydrate, and fresh apples are a good source of fiber and vitamins. Therefore, hamburgers are the correct choice to decrease intake for a client with hypercholesterolemia.
How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?
- A. 1
- B. 4
- C. 3
- D. 2
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.
The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?
- A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
- B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
- C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
- D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.
A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?
- A. shopping for groceries
- B. house cleaning
- C. transportation to physician's visits
- D. medication instruction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'medication instruction.' This service involves educating the client on how to properly take their medications, which requires a certain level of expertise and skill. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation to physician's visits are considered unskilled services as they do not involve specialized knowledge or training. In contrast, medication instruction is a skilled service that necessitates specific training to ensure the client's safety and adherence to their medication regimen.
In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?
- A. ability to breathe
- B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
- C. number of accompanying family members
- D. motor function
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.