Which statement is most accurate when discussing hair loss with the client?
- A. The hair loss is permanent, but attractive wigs are available.
- B. The hair loss is permanent, but hair transplantation is a possible solution.
- C. The hair loss is temporary; hair may grow back in several years.
- D. The hair loss is temporary; hair will regrow after chemotherapy is finished.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hair loss from chemotherapy is typically temporary, with regrowth occurring after treatment ends, usually within months.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for clients on a genitourinary floor. Which nursing task can be delegated to the UAP?
- A. Increase the drip rate on the Murphy drip irrigation set.
- B. Check the suprapubic catheter insertion site for infection.
- C. Encourage the two (2)-hour postoperative client to turn and cough.
- D. Document the amount of red drainage in the catheter.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging turning and coughing is within UAP scope to prevent respiratory complications. Adjusting irrigation, checking for infection, and documenting drainage require nursing judgment.
The nurse is teaching a class on breast health to a group of ladies at a senior citizen's center. Which risk factor is the most important to emphasize to this group?
- A. The clients should find out about their family history of breast cancer.
- B. Men at this age can get breast cancer also and should be screened.
- C. Monthly breast self-examination is the key to early detection.
- D. The older a woman gets, the greater the chance of developing breast cancer.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Age is the most significant risk factor for breast cancer, with risk increasing as women age, especially in seniors. Family history is important but less universal, male breast cancer is rare, and BSE is secondary to awareness and screening.
Which specific complication should the nurse assess for in the client with a uterine prolapse recovering from an anterior and posterior repair?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension.
- B. Atelectasis.
- C. Allen sign.
- D. Deep vein thrombosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis is a significant risk post-pelvic surgery due to immobility and venous stasis. Orthostatic hypotension is unrelated, atelectasis is a respiratory risk, and Allen sign pertains to arterial occlusion.
The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
- A. Odorless, white, curdlike vaginal discharge.
- B. Strawberry spots on the vaginal surface and itching.
- C. Scant white vaginal discharge and dyspareunia.
- D. Purulent discharge from the endocervix and pelvic pain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trichomoniasis causes strawberry spots (petechiae) on the vagina and itching due to inflammation. Curdlike discharge is candidiasis, scant discharge/dyspareunia is nonspecific, and purulent discharge suggests PID.
The nurse is assessing a 34-year-old female client with fibrocystic breasts. Which question should the nurse ask the client during the assessment?
- A. Are your breasts more tender during your period?'
- B. Have you ever developed an allergy to chocolate?'
- C. Can you tell me more about your feelings of having fibrocystic breast changes?'
- D. Have you considered having a prophylactic mastectomy?'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fibrocystic breast changes cause cyclical tenderness, worse premenstrually; this question assesses symptoms. Chocolate allergies, feelings, and prophylactic mastectomy are irrelevant.
Nokea