Nokea
Which statement is true about gonorrhea?
- A. It is caused by Treponema pallidum.
- B. Treatment is by multidose administration of penicillin.
- C. Treatment is by topical applications to lesions.
- D. Treatment of all sexual contacts is an essential part of treatment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The recommended treatment for gonorrhea is a combination of antibiotics. Currently, multidose administration of antibiotics such as ceftriaxone or azithromycin is often used due to increasing antibiotic resistance. Treatment by topical applications to lesions is not effective in treating systemic infections like gonorrhea. Treating all sexual contacts is an essential part of the management of gonorrhea to prevent reinfection and further transmission of the infection.
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The nurse is aware that the most common assessment finding in a child with ulcerative colitis is:
- A. Intense abdominal cramps
- B. Profuse diarrhea
- C. Anal fissures
- D. Abdominal distention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Profuse diarrhea is the most common assessment finding in a child with ulcerative colitis. Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the colon and rectum. It causes inflammation and ulcers in the lining of the colon, leading to symptoms such as frequent and urgent bowel movements, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. The diarrhea in ulcerative colitis is typically watery and can be very severe, often leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Intense abdominal cramps, anal fissures, and abdominal distention can also be present in ulcerative colitis, but profuse diarrhea is the hallmark symptom that is commonly seen in affected children.
A 1-year-old child develops right eye ptosis, miosis, and loss of sweating; you suspect neuroblastoma. The MOST valuable investigation to confirm the diagnosis is
- A. CT scan of the neck and chest
- B. CT scan of the abdomen
- C. CT scan of the brain
- D. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CT scan of the neck and chest can help identify a primary neuroblastoma mass in the adrenal gland or sympathetic chain.
A child with a Wilms tumor is scheduled for surgery. Which best describes the procedure?
- A. Only the affected kidney will be removed.
- B. Both kidneys will be removed.
- C. Only the tumor mass will be excised.
- D. The tumor is removed, and a biopsy of the unaffected kidney is done.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The standard treatment for Wilms tumor is a nephrectomy of the affected kidney while preserving the other kidney.
Which of the ff. medications might be ordered to help control symptoms of multiple sclerosis, and possibly induce a remission?
- A. Acyclovir
- B. Thyrotropin
- C. ACTH
- D. Benadryl
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone) might be ordered to help control symptoms of multiple sclerosis and possibly induce a remission. ACTH is sometimes used as a treatment option for multiple sclerosis due to its anti-inflammatory properties. It can help reduce inflammation in the central nervous system and, in some cases, lead to a decrease in symptoms and possibly induce a remission. However, it is important to note that ACTH is not commonly used as a first-line treatment for multiple sclerosis and is usually reserved for cases that are refractory to other medications.
A 9-year-old boy develops acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) one year after completion of therapy for soft tissue sarcoma at his right thigh. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is MOST likely the cause of secondary acute myelogenous leukemia AML in this boy?
- A. cyclophosphamide
- B. vincristine
- C. etoposide
- D. doxorubicin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Etoposide is known to be associated with secondary AML due to its potential to induce chromosomal abnormalities.