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A community health nurse is working with a group of clients.
Which task should the nurse perform to practice distributive justice?
- A. Ensuring that a client who is homeless receives preventative medical care
- B. Allocating community resources fairly among all clients in need.
- C. Prioritizing care for clients based on medical necessity rather than financial status.
- D. Advocating for equal access to healthcare services for underserved populations.
- E. Developing programs that address social determinants of health to reduce disparities.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because developing programs that address social determinants of health to reduce disparities aligns with the principle of distributive justice, which focuses on fair distribution of resources to reduce inequalities. By addressing social determinants of health, such as income inequality or access to education, the nurse is working towards creating equal opportunities for all individuals to achieve good health outcomes.
Choices A, B, C, and D do not directly address the root causes of health disparities and inequality. Option A focuses on providing care to a specific individual rather than addressing systemic issues. Option B talks about allocating resources fairly but lacks the focus on addressing social determinants. Option C mentions prioritizing care based on medical necessity, which may not necessarily target disparities. Option D discusses advocating for equal access, but it does not specifically address the underlying social determinants that contribute to inequalities.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?
- A. Digoxen 250 PO daily
- B. Metoprolol 50 mg PO twice daily
- C. Furosemide 40 mg IV once daily
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hours PRN pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Digoxin is commonly prescribed in mcg, not mg. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the dosage unit. Metoprolol (B) is a typical dose and frequency for oral administration. Furosemide (C) is a standard dose and route for IV administration. Acetaminophen (D) is a common dose and frequency for pain management. The other choices are not problematic.
A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of cefazolin via intermittent IV infusion to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Review the client's allergy history.
- B. Monitor the client's temperature.
- C. Check the client's latest white blood cell(WBC) count.
- D. Explain the purpose of the medication to the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review the client's allergy history. This should be done first to prevent potential harm to the client from allergic reactions. Knowing the client's allergy history helps the nurse identify any potential risks associated with administering medications. Monitoring temperature (B) and checking WBC count (C) are important but come after ensuring the safety of medication administration. Explaining the purpose of medication (D) is important but should be done after ensuring the client's safety.
A nurse is caring for a client who asks for information regarding organ donation.
Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Your desire to be an organ donor must be documented in writing
- B. You have the right to change your decision about organ donation at any time.
- C. Discussing your wishes with your family can help ensure they are honored.
- D. Organ donation does not delay funeral arrangements or affect body appearance.
- E. Medical care provided before death will not be affected by your organ donor status.
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is E because it addresses a common misconception. Organ donor status does not affect medical care provided before death. Choice A is incorrect as organ donor consent can also be verbal. Choice B is incorrect because changing one's decision about organ donation may not always be feasible in emergency situations. Choice C is incorrect as discussing wishes with family does not guarantee they will be honored legally. Choice D is incorrect as organ donation may have some impact on funeral arrangements and body appearance.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and note the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal fever
- B. Fetal anemia
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia
- D. Chorioamnionitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal anemia. Fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min) can be caused by inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus, such as in fetal anemia. Anemia decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen, leading to fetal distress. Maternal fever (A) can increase the fetal heart rate, not decrease it. Maternal hypoglycemia (C) can cause fetal distress, but typically presents with fetal tachycardia. Chorioamnionitis (D) can cause maternal fever and tachycardia, but is less likely to directly affect the fetal heart rate. Other choices are not provided.
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory test to the provider to obtain a prescription for warfarin.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.