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While assessing a primigravid client admitted at 36 weeks' gestation, the nurse observes multiple bruises on the client's face, neck, and abdomen. When asked about the bruises, the client admits that her boyfriend beats her now and then and says, 'I want to leave him because I'm afraid he will hurt the baby.' Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Tell the client to leave the boyfriend immediately.
- B. Ask the client when she last felt the baby move.
- C. Refer the client to a social worker for possible options.
- D. Report the incident to the unit nursing supervisor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Suspected domestic violence requires referral to a social worker to provide resources (e.g., shelters, counseling) and ensure maternal-fetal safety. Advising immediate leaving is impractical, fetal movement assessment is secondary, and reporting to the supervisor does not directly help the client.
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Soon after admission of a primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation with severe preeclampsia, the physician orders a continuous intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in Ringer's solution and 4 g of magnesium sulfate. While the medication is being administered, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- B. Patellar reflex of +2.
- C. Blood pressure of 160/88 mm Hg.
- D. Urinary output exceeding intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute indicates potential magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Assessment of a 15-year-old primigravid client at term in active labor reveals cervical dilation at 7 cm with complete effacement. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following first?
- A. Uterine inversion.
- B. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD).
- C. Rapid third stage of labor.
- D. Decreased ability to push.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 7 cm dilation in active labor, assessing for cephalopelvic disproportion is critical, as it can impede labor progression and may require intervention. Uterine inversion and rapid third stage occur post-delivery, and decreased pushing ability is relevant only in the second stage.
A client is considering permanent contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. Tubal ligation is considered permanent.
- B. Vasectomy requires a follow-up sperm count.
- C. Tubal ligation will cause early menopause.
- D. Both procedures require general anesthesia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tubal ligation does not cause early menopause, as it only blocks the fallopian tubes and does not affect ovarian hormone production. The other statements are correct, though anesthesia type may vary.
A nurse is discussing the contraceptive ring with a client. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding?
- A. I can remove the ring for up to 3 hours if needed.
- B. The ring is replaced every week.
- C. The ring requires daily insertion.
- D. The ring provides long-term contraception for 5 years.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The vaginal contraceptive ring can be removed for up to 3 hours if needed without losing effectiveness. It is replaced every 3 weeks (not weekly), not inserted daily, and provides contraception for one cycle, not 5 years.
Which of the following would alert the nurse to suspect that a neonate delivered at 34 weeks' gestation who is currently in an isolette with humidified oxygen and receiving intravenous fluids has developed overhydration?
- A. Hypernatremia.
- B. Polycythemia.
- C. Hypoproteinemia.
- D. Increased urine specific gravity.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoproteinemia can result from overhydration, as excess fluid dilutes plasma proteins.