Nokea
While documenting in a client's medical record, which of the following entries should the nurse record?
- A. "Incision without redness or drainage"
- B. "Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals"
- C. "Administered pain medication"
- D. "Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800"
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting specific observations, such as an oral temperature being slightly elevated at a specific time, is crucial for monitoring the client's health status accurately. This type of information helps in assessing trends and changes in the client's condition over time. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specificity and does not provide measurable data about the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect because it is a general statement related to client behavior rather than a specific health observation. Choice C is incorrect as it reflects an action taken by the nurse and not a direct client's condition or observation.
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A nurse is caring for a young adult at a college health clinic. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client information about immunization against meningitis.
- B. Tell the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years.
- C. Determine the client's health risks.
- D. Teach the client about exercise recommendations.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the client's health risks is the priority as it provides essential information to guide subsequent care. By understanding the client's health risks, the nurse can tailor health education and interventions, such as immunizations and lifestyle modifications, to address specific needs. Providing information about immunization against meningitis (Choice A) is important but should come after assessing health risks. Instructing the client to have a TB skin test every 2 years (Choice B) is relevant but not the initial step in care. Teaching about exercise recommendations (Choice D) is also essential but should follow the assessment of health risks.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.
An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is
- A. prone.
- B. Fowler's.
- C. Sims'.
- D. supine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
Which toy is most appropriate for an 18-month-old child?
- A. A pull toy
- B. A puzzle with large pieces
- C. A book with large pictures
- D. A doll with small clothes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A pull toy is the most appropriate choice for an 18-month-old child. At this age, children are developing their motor skills and coordination, and a pull toy can help with these aspects by encouraging movement and coordination. Puzzle with large pieces (Choice B) may pose a choking hazard for a child of this age due to small parts. While a book with large pictures (Choice C) can be engaging and beneficial for language development, a pull toy is more suitable for promoting physical development in an 18-month-old. A doll with small clothes (Choice D) is not ideal for this age group as small parts can be a choking hazard.