Nokea
While reviewing the head CT scan of a patient following a motor vehicle accident, the AGACNP appreciates a crescent-shaped fluid collection. This most likely represents
- A. Acute subdural hematoma
- B. Acute epidural hematoma
- C. Acute uncal herniation
- D. Acute brainstem compression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute epidural hematoma. A crescent-shaped fluid collection seen on a head CT scan following trauma is indicative of an epidural hematoma, which typically occurs due to an arterial bleed between the dura mater and the skull. This collection appears biconvex due to the restriction of the hematoma by the dura mater and is often associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration.
Explanation for Incorrect Choices:
A: Acute subdural hematoma typically presents as a crescent-shaped collection but is located between the dura mater and arachnoid mater, not between the dura mater and skull as seen in epidural hematomas.
C: Acute uncal herniation involves displacement of the uncus of the temporal lobe, leading to compression of the brainstem, but it does not manifest as a crescent-shaped fluid collection.
D: Acute brainstem compression does not typically present as a distinct crescent-shaped
You may also like to solve these questions
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
- A. Feminizing adrenal tumors are almost always carcinomas
- B. Feminizing adrenal tumors are the most common type of adrenal tumor
- C. Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex
- D. Virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children NURS 6560N Final Exam Answers 2024 NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers 2024
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Virilizing tumors in women are most often localized to the adrenal cortex. This is because virilizing tumors typically involve excessive production of androgens, which are male sex hormones, and are commonly associated with adrenal cortex disorders.
A is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors can be either benign or malignant, not always carcinomas. B is incorrect because feminizing adrenal tumors are rare compared to virilizing tumors. D is incorrect because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be benign rather than malignant in children.
In summary, the correct answer highlights the common association of virilizing tumors with the adrenal cortex in women, while the other choices present incorrect information regarding the types and malignancy of adrenal tumors.
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
- A. 36 weeks gestation
- B. 42 weeks gestation
- C. 38 weeks gestation
- D. 40 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this stage, the fetal lie should stabilize into a consistent position, typically longitudinal. Before 36 weeks, fetal movement and position can vary frequently. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where fetal lie should have stabilized. At 42 weeks gestation (Choice B), the baby is considered post-term, and fetal lie should have already been established. Similarly, Choices C (38 weeks) and D (40 weeks) fall within the expected range for fetal lie stabilization.
The lie is defined as unstable when it keeps varying after
- A. 36 weeks gestation
- B. 42 weeks gestation
- C. 38 weeks gestation
- D. 40 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (36 weeks gestation) because at this point in pregnancy, the fetus has reached a stable lie position. Before 36 weeks, fetal lie can vary due to the ample space in the uterus. After 36 weeks, the fetus tends to settle into a consistent head-down or breech position, making the lie stable. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are past the point where the lie typically stabilizes, leading to less variability in fetal positioning.
Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include
- A. A urology consultation
- B. CT urogram
- C. Upper urinary imaging
- D. Cystoscopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT urogram. This is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie's microscopic hematuria. A CT urogram can provide detailed imaging of the urinary tract to identify any structural abnormalities or causes of hematuria. A urology consultation (choice A) may be necessary after the imaging results. Upper urinary imaging (choice C) is not specific enough and may not provide a comprehensive evaluation. Cystoscopy (choice D) is invasive and typically reserved for cases where lower urinary tract issues are suspected, which is not indicated in Melanie's case without further evaluation.
P. T. is a 58-year-old female who is admitted with chest pain and shortness of breath and is found to have a large pulmonary embolus. Her systolic blood pressure is falling, and a diagnosis of obstructive shock is made. Cardiac pressure would likely demonstrate
- A. Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures
- B. Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures
- C. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased cardiac output
- D. Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance.
A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance.
B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output.
D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.