Nokea
While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.
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Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?
- A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
- B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
- C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
- D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.
The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Limit sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day
- B. Engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily
- C. Consume a diet high in saturated fats
- D. Avoid alcohol consumption completely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Engaging in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular physical activity helps lower blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is recommended to engage in activities like brisk walking, cycling, or swimming to achieve these benefits. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting sodium intake, avoiding a diet high in saturated fats, and reducing alcohol consumption are also important lifestyle modifications for hypertension management, but engaging in moderate exercise is the most appropriate initial instruction for this client.
A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
- B. Document the client's responses.
- C. Complete a medication error report.
- D. Determine if the pain was relieved.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.
When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Divert the client's attention
- B. Call for additional help from staff
- C. Document the planned action
- D. Re-assess the client's situation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before providing care to an anxious client, it is crucial for the nurse to first re-assess the client's situation. By re-assessing, the nurse can understand the underlying cause of the client's anxiety, which will help in tailoring appropriate care interventions. Re-assessment ensures that care provided is individualized and addresses the client's specific needs, promoting effective and client-centered care delivery. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the root cause of the anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations but should not be the first action. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after re-assessing the client's situation to ensure accurate documentation based on the current assessment.
A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
- B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
- D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.