Nokea
Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?
- A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
- B. To increase cardiac output.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To prevent the development of angina.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.
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What specific instructions should the nurse provide for proper administration of alendronate (Fosamax) in a patient with osteoporosis?
- A. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should not be taken with milk due to potential interactions. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to take the medication at bedtime specifically. Choice D is incorrect as taking alendronate with food can decrease its absorption.
What is the action of amphotericin B?
- A. It binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the membrane.
- B. It binds to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol.
- C. It disrupts the fungal cell walls rather than the cell membrane.
- D. It inhibits glucan synthetase required for glucan synthesis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication that acts by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, forming pores that disrupt the integrity of the membrane. This action leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately cell death. Choice B is incorrect as amphotericin B does not bind to an enzyme required for the synthesis of ergosterol. Choice C is incorrect as the drug primarily affects the cell membrane rather than the cell wall. Choice D is also incorrect as amphotericin B does not inhibit glucan synthetase.
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
- A. Sideroblastic anemia
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Pernicious anemia
- D. Iron deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.
A client with Guillain-Barr© syndrome is experiencing ascending paralysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- B. Prepare the client for plasmapheresis.
- C. Administer analgesics for pain management.
- D. Initiate passive range-of-motion exercises.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barr© syndrome, ascending paralysis can lead to respiratory muscle involvement, putting the client at risk for respiratory distress and failure. Prioritizing respiratory monitoring is crucial to ensure timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs. Plasmapheresis (Choice B) may be indicated in some cases to remove harmful antibodies, but the priority in this situation is respiratory support. Administering analgesics (Choice C) for pain management and initiating passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client's respiratory status is at risk.
A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:
- A. Toxoids
- B. IgA
- C. IgE
- D. IgM
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgE. A severe allergic reaction, such as the one experienced by the 10-year-old male after being stung by a bee, is mediated by IgE. IgE is involved in common allergic responses, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals that lead to allergy symptoms. Choice A, Toxoids, are inactivated toxins used in vaccines. Choice B, IgA, is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions, playing a role in mucosal immunity. Choice D, IgM, is the first antibody produced in response to an infection.