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Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?
- A. To prevent fluid overload
- B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
- C. To maintain electrolyte balance
- D. To prevent hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To reduce nitrogenous waste. In renal failure, the kidneys cannot effectively filter waste products like urea and creatinine, leading to their accumulation in the blood. A low-protein diet reduces the production of these nitrogenous wastes, lessening the burden on the kidneys.
A low-protein diet does not directly prevent fluid overload (A), maintain electrolyte balance (C), or prevent hyperglycemia (D) in renal failure. These functions are typically managed through other dietary modifications and treatments specific to each condition.
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When caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy, why is a low-protein diet recommended by the nurse?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increased ammonia levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia into urea, leading to increased ammonia levels in the blood. A low-protein diet helps reduce ammonia production in the gut, thereby decreasing ammonia levels in the blood and improving symptoms. Hyperglycemia (A) and hypoglycemia (B) are not directly related to the rationale for a low-protein diet in hepatic encephalopathy. Electrolyte imbalance (D) is not specifically addressed by a low-protein diet in this context.
A patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) is being treated with intravenous morphine. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to this patient?
- A. To reduce pain.
- B. To decrease anxiety.
- C. To reduce cardiac workload.
- D. To increase respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary reason for administering morphine to a patient with MI is to reduce cardiac workload. Morphine acts as a vasodilator and decreases preload and afterload on the heart, reducing myocardial oxygen demand. This helps to improve coronary blood flow and decrease the workload on the heart muscle, which is crucial in the setting of an MI.
Explanation for other choices:
A: While morphine can help reduce pain in MI, the primary reason for administering it is to reduce cardiac workload.
B: Morphine may have a calming effect, but the primary goal is to reduce cardiac workload.
D: Morphine can actually decrease respiratory rate as a side effect, making this choice incorrect.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
- A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.'
- B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.'
- C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.'
- D. Only take your long-acting insulin.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because skipping insulin can lead to dangerous complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Taking insulin as prescribed ensures blood glucose control, preventing hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose closely helps adjust doses accordingly. Choice A is incorrect as skipping insulin can be life-threatening. Choice C is incorrect as reducing insulin without proper monitoring can lead to unstable glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as both long-acting and short-acting insulin are essential for managing type 1 diabetes.
The patient has a calcium level of 12.1 mg/dL. Which nursing action should the nurse include on the care plan?
- A. Maintain the patient on bed rest.
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs.
- D. Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Encourage fluid intake up to 4000 mL every day. High calcium levels can lead to dehydration, so encouraging fluid intake helps prevent this complication. Increased fluid intake also promotes calcium excretion through urine. Bed rest (A) is not directly related to managing high calcium levels. Auscultating lung sounds (B) every 4 hours is more relevant for respiratory issues. Monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs (C) is associated with low calcium levels, not high levels.
What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Thin respiratory secretions
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.