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Why is a multiple-gestation pregnancy considered a high risk?
- A. Postpartum hemorrhage is an expected complication.
- B. Perinatal mortality is two to three times more likely in multiple than in single births.
- C. Optimal psychological adjustment after a multiple birth requires 6 months to 1 year.
- D. Maternal mortality is higher during the prenatal period in the setting of multiple gestation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because perinatal mortality is two to three times more likely in multiple gestation pregnancies compared to single births. This is due to the increased risk of complications such as preterm birth, low birth weight, and other neonatal issues. Postpartum hemorrhage (A) is a potential complication but not specific to multiple gestation pregnancies. Optimal psychological adjustment (C) and maternal mortality during the prenatal period (D) are not directly related to the increased risks associated with multiple gestation pregnancies.
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A patient at 25 weeks' gestation has just been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. What is the most important education for the nurse to provide the patient at this time?
- A. induction of labor
- B. nutrition
- C. potential fetal complications
- D. potential maternal complications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: nutrition. At 25 weeks' gestation with gestational diabetes, nutrition education is crucial to manage blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Proper diet control can help regulate blood glucose levels, ensuring optimal fetal growth and reducing the risk of macrosomia. Educating the patient on a balanced diet, monitoring carbohydrate intake, and understanding the glycemic index are essential. Induction of labor (choice A) is not indicated at this stage and may lead to potential complications. While discussing potential fetal (choice C) and maternal (choice D) complications is important, addressing nutrition takes precedence as it directly impacts the health of both the mother and the fetus.
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks' gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy†abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100°F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Uterine infection
- C. Gestational trophoblastic disease
- D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's presentation with crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, hypotension, and tachycardia are indicative of a uterine infection, most likely post-miscarriage. The timing of symptoms 2 weeks after miscarriage aligns with the typical onset of infection. The absence of products of conception being expelled completely could have led to retained tissue causing infection. Ectopic pregnancy (A) would typically present with severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (C) would present with irregular vaginal bleeding and elevated hCG levels. Endometriosis (D) is a chronic condition characterized by pelvic pain and abnormal menstrual bleeding, not an acute post-miscarriage complication.
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Delivery of the fetus
- C. Antihypertensive medications
- D. Administration of aspirin (ASA) every day of the pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can only be cured by delivering the baby and placenta. This is because the placenta is the source of the problem in preeclampsia. Other options like magnesium sulfate, antihypertensive medications, and aspirin can help manage symptoms but do not cure the underlying condition. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in severe cases, antihypertensive medications control high blood pressure, and aspirin may be used for prevention but not as a cure. Delivery is the definitive treatment to resolve preeclampsia and prevent further complications for both the mother and the baby.
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A. If the test is positive, it indicates sensitization has occurred, making RhoGAM necessary to prevent hemolytic disease in future pregnancies. Direct Coombs tests of the twins (choices A and B) are not relevant in this scenario as they assess for antibodies already attached to the red blood cells. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels (choice D) are used to monitor jaundice, not Rh incompatibility.
The nurse admits a client with preeclampsia to the high-risk prenatal unit. Which is the next nursing action after the vital signs have been obtained?
- A. Calling the primary health care provider
- B. Checking the client's reflexes
- C. Determining the client's blood type
- D. Establishing an intravenous (IV) line
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Checking the client's reflexes. This is important in assessing for signs of worsening preeclampsia, such as hyperreflexia. It helps determine the severity of the condition and guides further interventions. Calling the primary health care provider (A) may be necessary but not the immediate next step. Determining the client's blood type (C) is important but not urgent in this situation. Establishing an IV line (D) is important for treatment but assessing reflexes takes priority in preeclampsia management.