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Why is heart biopsy performed throughout a clients lifetime after heart transplantation?
- A. To detect rejection
- B. To check the heart functionality
- C. To check rate of the heartbeat
- D. To check for heart tumor CARING FOR CLIENTS WITH HYPERTENSION
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To detect rejection. After heart transplantation, heart biopsy is performed to monitor for rejection, a common complication. Tissue samples are examined for signs of rejection, such as inflammation. This is crucial for timely intervention to prevent rejection-related complications.
Other choices are incorrect:
B: Heart functionality is typically assessed through imaging tests like echocardiograms, not biopsy.
C: Heart rate monitoring can be done through non-invasive methods like electrocardiograms, not biopsy.
D: Checking for heart tumors is not a primary purpose of heart biopsy post-transplantation.
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A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. This is the correct answer because the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge, which is a common feeling among patients transitioning from the hospital to home care. This subjective data suggests that the patient may need additional support and education prior to discharge to address their fears and concerns.
A: The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help - This is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home and being alone does not necessarily indicate their ability to perform dressing changes independently.
B: The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications - This is incorrect as the fear expressed by the patient is related to being alone at home, not to medication management.
D: The patient’s surgery was not successful - This is incorrect as there is no indication in the subjective data provided that the surgery was not successful.
The staff nurse in a regional hospital is aware that a dose of parenteral ampicillin must be administered within how many hours after it has been mixed?
- A. 1 hour
- B. 4 hours
- C. 2 hours
- D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 hours) because parenteral ampicillin should be administered within 1 hour of mixing. This is crucial to ensure efficacy and prevent bacterial growth in the solution. Choice A (1 hour) is incorrect because it does not allow enough time for administration after mixing. Choice C (2 hours) is also incorrect as it exceeds the recommended time limit. Choice D (8 hours) is incorrect as it exceeds the safe window for administration post-mixing, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and reduced effectiveness. Thus, the optimal timeframe for administering parenteral ampicillin after mixing is within 4 hours to maintain its therapeutic benefits.
The nursing care for the client in addisonian crisis should include which of the following interventions?
- A. Encouraging independence with activities of daily living (ADL)
- B. Allowing ambulation as tolerated
- C. Offering extra blankets and raising the heat in the room to keep the client warm
- D. Placing the client in a private room
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in Addisonian crisis, the client experiences adrenal insufficiency leading to decreased cortisol levels and impaired stress response. Offering extra blankets and raising room temperature helps prevent hypothermia, as clients in crisis are unable to regulate body temperature. Encouraging independence with ADLs (choice A) and ambulation (choice B) are not priorities as the client is in a critical state. Placing the client in a private room (choice D) is not directly related to managing Addisonian crisis.
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
- A. The client’s knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his sexual function
- B. The clients medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood
- C. The clients knowledge about the effects of the surgery on his nervous control
- D. The clients occupational and environmental health hazards
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions.
Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
The nurse is assessing a client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should keep in mind that clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for:
- A. Chronic liver failure.
- B. Pathologic bone fractures.
- C. Acute heart failure.
- D. Hypoxemia.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.