Nokea
Why would FAM not be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to a perimenopausal person?
- A. At that age, people do not have intercourse on a regular basis.
- B. They are married and do not need contraception.
- C. They have irregular menstrual periods.
- D. Pregnancy is not a concern when a person is perimenopausal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because perimenopausal individuals often have irregular menstrual periods, making FAM less reliable for tracking ovulation. Irregular periods can make it challenging to accurately predict fertile days. Choice A is incorrect because FAM is not solely for contraception but also for fertility awareness. Choice B is incorrect as FAM can still be used for tracking fertility even if contraception is not needed. Choice D is incorrect because while pregnancy risk decreases during perimenopause, it is not zero, and FAM can still be helpful for those who wish to avoid pregnancy.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypnosis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Bilateral crackles
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. When a client is receiving an opioid analgesic via an epidural block, a potential adverse effect is respiratory depression, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs and the development of bilateral crackles upon auscultation. Hypnosis (choice A) is not typically associated with opioid analgesics. Polyuria (choice B) is not a common side effect of opioids or epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of opioid analgesics administered through an epidural block. Monitoring for bilateral crackles is crucial to detect and address respiratory depression promptly.
The nurse is monitoring a client in active labor with ruptured membranes. What finding requires immediate action?
- A. Contractions every 3–5 minutes.
- B. Temperature of 100.4°F.
- C. Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/minute.
- D. Clear amniotic fluid.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fetal heart rate of 100 beats/minute. A fetal heart rate of 100 beats/minute is bradycardia, indicating fetal distress and requiring immediate action to prevent adverse outcomes. Contractions every 3-5 minutes are normal in active labor. A temperature of 100.4°F indicates a low-grade fever but is not an immediate concern unless it continues to rise. Clear amniotic fluid is a normal finding after membrane rupture and does not require immediate action. Therefore, monitoring and addressing the fetal heart rate abnormalities are crucial in this situation.
A nurse is caring for a newborn delivered by vaginal birth with a vacuum assist. The newborn's mother asks about the swollen area on her son's head. After palpation to identify that the swelling crosses the suture line, which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "Mongolian spots can be found on the skin of many newborns."
- B. "A caput succedaneum occurs due to compression of blood vessels."
- C. "This is a cephalhematoma, which can occur spontaneously."
- D. "This is erythema toxicum, which is a transient condition."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a cephalhematoma, which can occur spontaneously."
1. Cephalhematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage that does not cross suture lines and is due to trauma during delivery.
2. Caput succedaneum (choice B) occurs due to pressure during labor and resolves within a few days.
3. Mongolian spots (choice A) are benign bluish-grey birthmarks commonly found in newborns and are not related to head swelling.
4. Erythema toxicum (choice D) is a common rash in newborns, not related to head swelling.
In summary, the correct choice is C because it accurately describes the condition observed in the newborn after vacuum-assisted delivery.
The primigravida is admitted to the birthing and labor unit, but
- A. The initial response from the nurse will be to:
- B. Take health history
- C. Perform vaginal exam
- D. Review prenatal record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Take health history. This is the initial response because obtaining the patient's health history provides crucial information about the primigravida's medical background, current health status, any complications, and helps in assessing the risk factors for labor and delivery. This information guides the nurse in providing appropriate care and making informed decisions during the labor process.
Choice A (The initial response from the nurse will be to) is vague and not specific enough to address the immediate needs of the patient.
Choice C (Perform vaginal exam) is not appropriate as the first action because it can be invasive and should only be performed after obtaining the health history to determine the necessity and timing of the exam.
Choice D (Review prenatal record) is important but should come after taking the health history to supplement the information obtained and provide a comprehensive understanding of the patient's pregnancy course.
According to the WHO, in 2022, what percentage of all new HIV infections occurred among persons AFAB?
- A. 46%
- B. 63%
- C. 10%
- D. 25%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (46%). The term "AFAB" refers to "assigned female at birth." According to the WHO, around 46% of all new HIV infections in 2022 occurred among individuals assigned female at birth. This statistic highlights the disproportionate burden of HIV on this particular demographic. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific data provided by the WHO for new HIV infections among persons AFAB in 2022.