You are ready to wash your patient's face. You would start by washing what area of the face?
- A. The forehead
- B. The eyes
- C. The ears
- D. The cheeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When washing a patient's face, it is essential to start by cleaning the eyes. The eye area is considered the priority because moving from an area that can potentially be infected to areas of the face and body that are least able to become infected with a washcloth helps prevent the spread of germs. Washing the forehead, ears, or cheeks before the eyes may risk transferring bacteria to a more sensitive area like the eyes, which could lead to infections or other complications. Therefore, starting with the eyes ensures proper hygiene and reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the patient's face.
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While caring for Mr. Charles Y., you see a notation on the nursing care plan that states, 'remind the patient to use the incentive spirometer tid.' This patient will be reminded at which of the following times?
- A. 10:00 AM
- B. 10 am and 2 pm
- C. 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm
- D. 10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The abbreviation 'tid' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day. In this case, the patient should be reminded to use the incentive spirometer at 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm. Option A, '10 am,' is too infrequent for tid dosing. Option B, '10 am and 2 pm,' is missing the third reminder at 6 pm. Option D, '10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm,' includes an additional time that is not part of the standard tid dosing schedule.
Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
A patient has a goal of eating at least 50% of each meal. The patient refuses to eat, so a nurse force-feeds the patient in order for them to reach their goal of eating at least 50% of the meal. The nurse has committed __________ against this patient.
- A. assault
- B. battery
- C. physical neglect
- D. emotional neglect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'battery.' Battery occurs when there is unwanted physical contact or force applied to a person without their consent. In this scenario, force-feeding the patient against their will constitutes battery as the nurse is physically interfering with the patient's body without permission. Assault involves the threat of physical harm, which is not present in the situation described. Physical neglect refers to the failure to provide basic care needs, which is not the case here. Emotional neglect involves the failure to address emotional needs, which is also not applicable in this context.
Which statement by the client with chronic obstructive lung disease indicates an understanding of the major reason for the use of occasional pursed-lip breathing?
- A. ''This action of my lips helps to keep my airway open.''
- B. ''I can expel more air when I pucker up my lips to breathe out.''
- C. ''My mouth doesn't get as dry when I breathe with pursed lips.''
- D. ''By prolonging breathing out with pursed lips, the smaller areas in my lungs don't collapse.''
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have difficulty exhaling fully due to the weak alveolar walls from the disease process. Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent alveolar collapse by maintaining positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This is the major reason for using pursed-lip breathing in individuals with chronic obstructive lung disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the main purpose of pursed-lip breathing, which is to prevent alveolar collapse and improve exhalation in these patients.
Which of the following is an example of a positive effect of exercise on a client?
- A. Decreased basal metabolic rate
- B. Decreased venous return
- C. Decreased work of breathing
- D. Decreased gastric motility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased work of breathing.' Exercise has numerous positive effects on clients, such as increasing metabolic rate, improving gastric motility, and enhancing venous return. When a client exercises regularly, their work of breathing decreases, meaning that everyday activities require less exertion. This is beneficial as it indicates improved cardiovascular and respiratory efficiency. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased basal metabolic rate, decreased venous return, and decreased gastric motility are not typically considered positive effects of exercise. Instead, an increased basal metabolic rate, improved venous return, and optimal gastric motility are desired outcomes associated with physical activity.